Complete Series Test 2
1. Complete the series ----
4,8,24,48,……..
a. 128 b. 144 c. 108 d. 96
2. Complete the series ----
3,8,13,18,23,…..
a. 25 b. 30 c. 28 d. 36
3. Complete the series ----
7,21,63,……
a. 169 b. 159 c. 189 d. 109
4. Complete the series ----
5,15,46,140,……
a. 423 b. 288 c. 333 d. 444
5. Complete the series ----
3,15,35,63,99,……
a. 134 b. 143 c. 431 d. 341
6. Complete the series ----
17,14,15,12,13,10,…..
a. 8 b. 9 c. 10 d. 11
7. Complete the series ----
2,12,36,80,150,……
a. 252 b. 225 c. 522 d. 255
8. Complete the series ----
18,20,24,32,……
a. 36 b. 34 c. 40 d. 48
9. Complete the series ----
7,13,20,28,……
a. 36 b. 34 c. 37 d. 32
10. Complete the series ----
1,3,6,10,15,……
a. 21 b. 20 c. 22 d. 23
11. Complete the series ----
5,14,27,44,65,…..
a. 109 b. 90 c. 88 d. 130
12. Complete the series ----
1,4,10,22,46,…..
a. 68 b. 48 c. 82 d. 94
13. Complete the series ----
3,6,8,16,19,……
a. 21 b. 38 c. 35 d. 36
14. Complete the series ----
6,3,12,6,18,….
a. 9 b. 24 c. 12 d. 36
15. Complete the series ----
3,5,9,17,33,….
a. 49 b. 48 c. 63 d. 65
16. Complete the series ----
19,17,13,11,7,5,1,……
a. 1 b. 2 c. 0 d. -1
17. Complete the series ----
30,24,19,15,12,….
a. 9 b. 8 c. 10 d. 11
18. Complete the series ----
7,13,23,?,39,45.
a. 24 b. 29 c. 26 d. 27
19. Complete the series ----
2,20,?,110,182.
a. 86 b. 96 c. 82 d. 56
20. Complete the series ----
53,55,51,57,49,59,47,….
a. 45,61 b. 61,45 c. 63,43 d. 43,63
21. Complete the series ----
12,8,14,6,16,4,…
a. 18 b. 19 c. 20 d. 22
22. Complete the series ----
0,3,8,15,24,35,….
a. 40 b. 42 c. 45 d. 48
23. Complete the series ----
48,24,72,36,108,…
a. 216 b. 54 c. 120 d. 60
24. Complete the series ----
5,10,15,25,40,…
a. 45 b. 50 c. 65 d. 60
25. Complete the series ----
0,1,8,27,64,….
a. 128 b. 125 c. 96 d. 256
Complete Series Test 2
1. B 2. C 3. C 4. A 5. B
6. D 7. A 8. D 9. C 10. D
11. B 12. D 13. B 14. A 15. D
16. D 17. C 18. B 19. D 20. B
21. A 22. D 23. B 24. C 25. B
Saturday, September 27, 2008
REASONING TEST QUESTIONS N ANSWERS
BRIGHTWAYS SOFTWARE SOLUTION
REASONING TEST D
1. For effective swapping binding of instructions and data should be done at
a. load time b. compile time c. execution time
2. Which memory management scheme does not support multi-programming
a. Single Partition allocation b. Multiple partition allocation
c. Paging d. Segmentation
3. The address space of one process is protected from other processes using ………… and ………… registers in multiple partition schemes
4. Which memory management technique causes no external fragmentation
a. Multiple partition with fixed partitions b. Paging c. Segmentation
5. ……………. is used to solve the problem of external causes in multiple partition scheme
6. ……………. is the memory management scheme which allows the memory occupied by a process to be non-contiguous
7. ……………. Is not eliminated by Paging
8. Which scheduling algorithm is inherently preemptive
a. FCFS b. SJF c. RR d. Priority Scheduling
9. Total time taken by a process to complete execution is
a. waiting time b. turn-around time c. response time d. throughput
10. The time spent by a process in the ready queue is
a. waiting time b. turn-around time c. response time d. throughput
11. Swapping is done by
a. long term scheduler b. medium term scheduler c.short term scheduler
12. The optimal scheduling algorithm is
a. FCFS b. SJF c. RR d. Multi-level queue scheduling
13. The performance of RR algorithm depends heavily on
a. size of the process b. The I/O bursts of the process
c. The CPU bursts of the process d. The size of the time quantum
14. The technique of gradually increasing the priority of a process that wait in a system for a long time is known as
a. Blocking b. Starvation c. Aging d. Convoy effect
15. When all other processes wait for one big process to get off the CPU the phenomenon is called
a. Starvation b. blocking c. convoy effect d. aging
16. The memory management scheme which allows the execution of a process which is partially loaded into physical memory is
a. Virtual memory b. Segmentation c. Paging
17. The page replacement algorithm which replaces the page which will not be used for a longest period of time is
a. LRU b. FIFO c. Optional page replacement d. Second change algorithm
18. The page replacement algorithm which gives the lowest page fault rate is
a. LRU b. FIFO c. Optional page replacement d. Second change algorithm
19. The ………. Bit attached to each entry in the page table is used to determine that the associated page is in memory
20. A ………….. is generated when a process tries to access a page which is not in memory
21. When a process is rolled back as a result od deadlock the difficulty which arises is
a. Starvation b. system throughput c. Low device utilization
22. Necessary conditions for a system to be in deadlock are
a. mutual exclusion b. Hold and wait c. No pre-emption
d. Circular wait e. All of the above
23. If the resource allocation graph for a system ( with multiple instances for resource types) has a cycle
a. The system is not deadlocked b. The system may be deadlocked
c. the system is not deadlocked
24. If the resource allocation graph for a system ( with single instances for each resource types) has a cycle then
a. system is deadlocked b. system may be deadlocked
c. the system is not deadlocked
25. Two disadvantages of deadlock prevention schemes are
a. low device utilization b. reduce system through put c. starvation
ANSWERS OF REASONING TEST D
1. C 2. A 3. Base and limit
4. b 5. Compaction 6. Paging
7. Internal Fragmentation 8. C 9. B
10. A 11. B 12. B
13. D 14. C 15. C
16. A 17. C 18. C
19. Valid- invalid 20. Page-fault 21. A
22. E 23. B 24. A
25. A and B 26. 27.
REASONING TEST D
1. For effective swapping binding of instructions and data should be done at
a. load time b. compile time c. execution time
2. Which memory management scheme does not support multi-programming
a. Single Partition allocation b. Multiple partition allocation
c. Paging d. Segmentation
3. The address space of one process is protected from other processes using ………… and ………… registers in multiple partition schemes
4. Which memory management technique causes no external fragmentation
a. Multiple partition with fixed partitions b. Paging c. Segmentation
5. ……………. is used to solve the problem of external causes in multiple partition scheme
6. ……………. is the memory management scheme which allows the memory occupied by a process to be non-contiguous
7. ……………. Is not eliminated by Paging
8. Which scheduling algorithm is inherently preemptive
a. FCFS b. SJF c. RR d. Priority Scheduling
9. Total time taken by a process to complete execution is
a. waiting time b. turn-around time c. response time d. throughput
10. The time spent by a process in the ready queue is
a. waiting time b. turn-around time c. response time d. throughput
11. Swapping is done by
a. long term scheduler b. medium term scheduler c.short term scheduler
12. The optimal scheduling algorithm is
a. FCFS b. SJF c. RR d. Multi-level queue scheduling
13. The performance of RR algorithm depends heavily on
a. size of the process b. The I/O bursts of the process
c. The CPU bursts of the process d. The size of the time quantum
14. The technique of gradually increasing the priority of a process that wait in a system for a long time is known as
a. Blocking b. Starvation c. Aging d. Convoy effect
15. When all other processes wait for one big process to get off the CPU the phenomenon is called
a. Starvation b. blocking c. convoy effect d. aging
16. The memory management scheme which allows the execution of a process which is partially loaded into physical memory is
a. Virtual memory b. Segmentation c. Paging
17. The page replacement algorithm which replaces the page which will not be used for a longest period of time is
a. LRU b. FIFO c. Optional page replacement d. Second change algorithm
18. The page replacement algorithm which gives the lowest page fault rate is
a. LRU b. FIFO c. Optional page replacement d. Second change algorithm
19. The ………. Bit attached to each entry in the page table is used to determine that the associated page is in memory
20. A ………….. is generated when a process tries to access a page which is not in memory
21. When a process is rolled back as a result od deadlock the difficulty which arises is
a. Starvation b. system throughput c. Low device utilization
22. Necessary conditions for a system to be in deadlock are
a. mutual exclusion b. Hold and wait c. No pre-emption
d. Circular wait e. All of the above
23. If the resource allocation graph for a system ( with multiple instances for resource types) has a cycle
a. The system is not deadlocked b. The system may be deadlocked
c. the system is not deadlocked
24. If the resource allocation graph for a system ( with single instances for each resource types) has a cycle then
a. system is deadlocked b. system may be deadlocked
c. the system is not deadlocked
25. Two disadvantages of deadlock prevention schemes are
a. low device utilization b. reduce system through put c. starvation
ANSWERS OF REASONING TEST D
1. C 2. A 3. Base and limit
4. b 5. Compaction 6. Paging
7. Internal Fragmentation 8. C 9. B
10. A 11. B 12. B
13. D 14. C 15. C
16. A 17. C 18. C
19. Valid- invalid 20. Page-fault 21. A
22. E 23. B 24. A
25. A and B 26. 27.
APTITUDE 2
Aptitude TEST 2
1. After doing 3/5 of the biology homework on Monday night , Sanjay did 1/3 of the remaining home work on Tuesday night. What fraction of the original homework would Sanjay have to do on Wednesday night to complete the biology assignment
a. 1/15 b. 2/15 c. 4/15 d. 2/5
2. In a house society , 30 percent of the residents are men over the age of 18 and 40 percent are woman over the age of 18. If there are 24 children living in the housing society , then how many total residents live ?
a. 32 b. 80 c. 94 d. 112
3. The binary Ice Cream shopper sells two flavours: vanilla and chocolate . On Friday the ratio of sold was 2:3. If the store had 4 more vanilla cones , then the ratio of vanilla comes sold to the chocolate cones sold would have been 3:4. How many vanilla cones did the store sell on Friday
a. 32 b. 35 c. 42 d. 48
4. A store raised the price of an item by exactly 10 percent. Which of the following could not be the resulting price of the item ?
a. Rs. 5.50 b. Rs. 7.60 c. Rs. 11.00 d. Rs. 12.10
5. The price for a pair of cuff links is Rs. 1.00. The price for a 5-pair package of cuff links is Rs. 3.40. The 5-pair package is what percent cheaper per pair than 5 pairs purchased separately ?
a. 63% b. 62% c. 47% d. 32%
6. A company bought a total of 60 computers and 20 printers to modernize billing operations. If the price of each computer was three times the price of each printer, then what percent of the total cost of the purchase was the total cost of the printer ?
a. 10% b. 11% c. 15% d. 20%
7. At a college football game , 4/5 of the seats in the lower deck of the stadium were sold. If ¼ of all the seating in the stadium is located in the lower deck, and if 2/3 of all the seats ill the stadium were sold, then what fraction of the unsold seats in the stadium was in the lower deck ?
a. 3/20 b. 1/6 c. 1/5 d. 1/3
8. Peter got 30% of the maximum marks in an examination and failed by 10 marks. However, paul who took the same examination got 40% of the total marks and got 15 marks more than the passing marks. What were the passing marks in the examination
a. 35 b. 250 c. 75 d. 85
9. 37.85% and 92% alcoholic solutions are mixed to get 35 litres of an 89% alcoholic solutions. How many litres each solution are there in the new mixture ?
a. 10 of the first and 25 of the second b. 20 of the first and 15 of the second
c. 15 of the first and 20 of the second d. 12 of the first and 23 of the second
10. The length of a rectangular plot is increased by 25%. To keep its area unchanged, the width of the plot should be
a. Keep unchanged b. Increased by 25% c. Increased by 20% d. Reduced by 20%
11. The number of boys is more than the number of girls by 12% of the total strength of the class. The ratio of the number of boys to that of the girls is
a. 11:14 b. 14:11 c. 25:28 d. 28:25
12. A person has deposited Rs. 13,200 in a bank which pays 14% interest. He withdraws the money and invests in Rs. 100 stocks at Rs. 110 which pays a dividend of 15% how much does he gain or lose
a. Loses Rs. 48 b. Gains Rs. 48 c. Loses Rs. 132 d. Gains Rs. 132
13. The marked price of a certain commodity is 30% higher than its cost price . A discount of 20% on the marked price makes the selling price Rs. 208. What is the net profit as a percent of the cost price ?
a. 10% b. 4% c. 8% d. 12%
14. Cloth makers Inc has P spindles , each of which can produce Q meters of cloth on an average in r minute . If the spindles are made to run with no interruption, then how many hours will it take for 20,000 meters of cloth to be produced ?
a. 20000(pq)/r b. 20000(rq)/p c. 20000(pr)/(pq) d. 20000r/60(pq)
15. If a % of x equal to b% of y, then c% of y is what % of x ?
a. c% b. ac/b% c. bc/a% d. abc%
16. In a class , 40% of the boys are same as ½ of the girls and there are 20 girls . Total number of students in the class is
a. 70 b. 45 c. 35 d. 25
17. Machine A produces bolts at a uniform rate of 120 every 40seconds, and machine B produces bolts at a uniform rate of 100 every 20 seconds. If two machines run simultaneously, then how many seconds will it take them to produce a total of 200 bolts ?
a. 22 b. 25 c. 28 d. 32
18. In a shipment of 120 machine parts, 5 percent were defective. In a shipment of 80 machine parts , 10 percent were defective . For the two shipment combined , what percent of the machine parts were defective ?
a. 6.5% b. 7.0% c. 7.5% d. 8.0%
19. The cost price of 20 articles is the same as the selling price of x articles . If the profit is 25% , then the value of x is
a. 25 b. 18 c. 16 d. 15
20. A screw driver and a hammer currently have the same price . If the price of a screw driver rises by 5% and the price of hammer goes up by 3% , then how much more will it cost to buy 3 screw drivers and 3 hammers ?
a. 3% b. 4% c. 5% d. 8%
21. Village A has a population of 6800, which is decreasing at the rate of 120per year . Village B has a population of 4200, which is increasing at the rate of 80per year. In how many year will the population of the two villages be equal ?
a. 9 b. 11 c. 13 d. 16
22. Ravi’s salary is 150% of Amit’s salary. Amit’s salary is 80% of Ram salary. What is the ratio of Ram’s salary to Ravi’s salary?
a. 1 to 2 b. 2 to 3 c. 5to 6 d. 6 to 5
23. A scoter costs Rs. 25,000 when it is brand new. At the end of each year , its value is only 80% of what it was at the beginning of the 3 years ?
a. Rs. 10,000 b. Rs. 12,500 c. Rs. 12,800 d. Rs. 12,000
24. Running at the same constant rate , 6 identical machines can produce a total of 270 bottels per minute . At this rate , how many bottles could 10 such machines produce in 4 minutes
a. 648 b. 1,800 c. 2,700 d. 10,800
25. A man sells an article at 5% profit. If he had bought it at 5% less and sold it for Rs. 1 less , he would have gained 10% . The cost price of the article is
a. Rs. 200 b. Rs. 150 c. Rs. 250 d. Rs. 240
ANSWERS Aptitude TEST 2
1. C 2. B 3. A 4. B 5. D
6. A 7. A 8. D 9. C 10. D
11. B 12. A 13. B 14. D 15. B
16. B 17. B 18. B 19. A 20. B
21. C 22. C 23. C 24. B 25. A
1. After doing 3/5 of the biology homework on Monday night , Sanjay did 1/3 of the remaining home work on Tuesday night. What fraction of the original homework would Sanjay have to do on Wednesday night to complete the biology assignment
a. 1/15 b. 2/15 c. 4/15 d. 2/5
2. In a house society , 30 percent of the residents are men over the age of 18 and 40 percent are woman over the age of 18. If there are 24 children living in the housing society , then how many total residents live ?
a. 32 b. 80 c. 94 d. 112
3. The binary Ice Cream shopper sells two flavours: vanilla and chocolate . On Friday the ratio of sold was 2:3. If the store had 4 more vanilla cones , then the ratio of vanilla comes sold to the chocolate cones sold would have been 3:4. How many vanilla cones did the store sell on Friday
a. 32 b. 35 c. 42 d. 48
4. A store raised the price of an item by exactly 10 percent. Which of the following could not be the resulting price of the item ?
a. Rs. 5.50 b. Rs. 7.60 c. Rs. 11.00 d. Rs. 12.10
5. The price for a pair of cuff links is Rs. 1.00. The price for a 5-pair package of cuff links is Rs. 3.40. The 5-pair package is what percent cheaper per pair than 5 pairs purchased separately ?
a. 63% b. 62% c. 47% d. 32%
6. A company bought a total of 60 computers and 20 printers to modernize billing operations. If the price of each computer was three times the price of each printer, then what percent of the total cost of the purchase was the total cost of the printer ?
a. 10% b. 11% c. 15% d. 20%
7. At a college football game , 4/5 of the seats in the lower deck of the stadium were sold. If ¼ of all the seating in the stadium is located in the lower deck, and if 2/3 of all the seats ill the stadium were sold, then what fraction of the unsold seats in the stadium was in the lower deck ?
a. 3/20 b. 1/6 c. 1/5 d. 1/3
8. Peter got 30% of the maximum marks in an examination and failed by 10 marks. However, paul who took the same examination got 40% of the total marks and got 15 marks more than the passing marks. What were the passing marks in the examination
a. 35 b. 250 c. 75 d. 85
9. 37.85% and 92% alcoholic solutions are mixed to get 35 litres of an 89% alcoholic solutions. How many litres each solution are there in the new mixture ?
a. 10 of the first and 25 of the second b. 20 of the first and 15 of the second
c. 15 of the first and 20 of the second d. 12 of the first and 23 of the second
10. The length of a rectangular plot is increased by 25%. To keep its area unchanged, the width of the plot should be
a. Keep unchanged b. Increased by 25% c. Increased by 20% d. Reduced by 20%
11. The number of boys is more than the number of girls by 12% of the total strength of the class. The ratio of the number of boys to that of the girls is
a. 11:14 b. 14:11 c. 25:28 d. 28:25
12. A person has deposited Rs. 13,200 in a bank which pays 14% interest. He withdraws the money and invests in Rs. 100 stocks at Rs. 110 which pays a dividend of 15% how much does he gain or lose
a. Loses Rs. 48 b. Gains Rs. 48 c. Loses Rs. 132 d. Gains Rs. 132
13. The marked price of a certain commodity is 30% higher than its cost price . A discount of 20% on the marked price makes the selling price Rs. 208. What is the net profit as a percent of the cost price ?
a. 10% b. 4% c. 8% d. 12%
14. Cloth makers Inc has P spindles , each of which can produce Q meters of cloth on an average in r minute . If the spindles are made to run with no interruption, then how many hours will it take for 20,000 meters of cloth to be produced ?
a. 20000(pq)/r b. 20000(rq)/p c. 20000(pr)/(pq) d. 20000r/60(pq)
15. If a % of x equal to b% of y, then c% of y is what % of x ?
a. c% b. ac/b% c. bc/a% d. abc%
16. In a class , 40% of the boys are same as ½ of the girls and there are 20 girls . Total number of students in the class is
a. 70 b. 45 c. 35 d. 25
17. Machine A produces bolts at a uniform rate of 120 every 40seconds, and machine B produces bolts at a uniform rate of 100 every 20 seconds. If two machines run simultaneously, then how many seconds will it take them to produce a total of 200 bolts ?
a. 22 b. 25 c. 28 d. 32
18. In a shipment of 120 machine parts, 5 percent were defective. In a shipment of 80 machine parts , 10 percent were defective . For the two shipment combined , what percent of the machine parts were defective ?
a. 6.5% b. 7.0% c. 7.5% d. 8.0%
19. The cost price of 20 articles is the same as the selling price of x articles . If the profit is 25% , then the value of x is
a. 25 b. 18 c. 16 d. 15
20. A screw driver and a hammer currently have the same price . If the price of a screw driver rises by 5% and the price of hammer goes up by 3% , then how much more will it cost to buy 3 screw drivers and 3 hammers ?
a. 3% b. 4% c. 5% d. 8%
21. Village A has a population of 6800, which is decreasing at the rate of 120per year . Village B has a population of 4200, which is increasing at the rate of 80per year. In how many year will the population of the two villages be equal ?
a. 9 b. 11 c. 13 d. 16
22. Ravi’s salary is 150% of Amit’s salary. Amit’s salary is 80% of Ram salary. What is the ratio of Ram’s salary to Ravi’s salary?
a. 1 to 2 b. 2 to 3 c. 5to 6 d. 6 to 5
23. A scoter costs Rs. 25,000 when it is brand new. At the end of each year , its value is only 80% of what it was at the beginning of the 3 years ?
a. Rs. 10,000 b. Rs. 12,500 c. Rs. 12,800 d. Rs. 12,000
24. Running at the same constant rate , 6 identical machines can produce a total of 270 bottels per minute . At this rate , how many bottles could 10 such machines produce in 4 minutes
a. 648 b. 1,800 c. 2,700 d. 10,800
25. A man sells an article at 5% profit. If he had bought it at 5% less and sold it for Rs. 1 less , he would have gained 10% . The cost price of the article is
a. Rs. 200 b. Rs. 150 c. Rs. 250 d. Rs. 240
ANSWERS Aptitude TEST 2
1. C 2. B 3. A 4. B 5. D
6. A 7. A 8. D 9. C 10. D
11. B 12. A 13. B 14. D 15. B
16. B 17. B 18. B 19. A 20. B
21. C 22. C 23. C 24. B 25. A
APTITUDE
Aptitude TEST 2
1. After doing 3/5 of the biology homework on Monday night , Sanjay did 1/3 of the remaining home work on Tuesday night. What fraction of the original homework would Sanjay have to do on Wednesday night to complete the biology assignment
a. 1/15 b. 2/15 c. 4/15 d. 2/5
2. In a house society , 30 percent of the residents are men over the age of 18 and 40 percent are woman over the age of 18. If there are 24 children living in the housing society , then how many total residents live ?
a. 32 b. 80 c. 94 d. 112
3. The binary Ice Cream shopper sells two flavours: vanilla and chocolate . On Friday the ratio of sold was 2:3. If the store had 4 more vanilla cones , then the ratio of vanilla comes sold to the chocolate cones sold would have been 3:4. How many vanilla cones did the store sell on Friday
a. 32 b. 35 c. 42 d. 48
4. A store raised the price of an item by exactly 10 percent. Which of the following could not be the resulting price of the item ?
a. Rs. 5.50 b. Rs. 7.60 c. Rs. 11.00 d. Rs. 12.10
5. The price for a pair of cuff links is Rs. 1.00. The price for a 5-pair package of cuff links is Rs. 3.40. The 5-pair package is what percent cheaper per pair than 5 pairs purchased separately ?
a. 63% b. 62% c. 47% d. 32%
6. A company bought a total of 60 computers and 20 printers to modernize billing operations. If the price of each computer was three times the price of each printer, then what percent of the total cost of the purchase was the total cost of the printer ?
a. 10% b. 11% c. 15% d. 20%
7. At a college football game , 4/5 of the seats in the lower deck of the stadium were sold. If ¼ of all the seating in the stadium is located in the lower deck, and if 2/3 of all the seats ill the stadium were sold, then what fraction of the unsold seats in the stadium was in the lower deck ?
a. 3/20 b. 1/6 c. 1/5 d. 1/3
8. Peter got 30% of the maximum marks in an examination and failed by 10 marks. However, paul who took the same examination got 40% of the total marks and got 15 marks more than the passing marks. What were the passing marks in the examination
a. 35 b. 250 c. 75 d. 85
9. 37.85% and 92% alcoholic solutions are mixed to get 35 litres of an 89% alcoholic solutions. How many litres each solution are there in the new mixture ?
a. 10 of the first and 25 of the second b. 20 of the first and 15 of the second
c. 15 of the first and 20 of the second d. 12 of the first and 23 of the second
10. The length of a rectangular plot is increased by 25%. To keep its area unchanged, the width of the plot should be
a. Keep unchanged b. Increased by 25% c. Increased by 20% d. Reduced by 20%
11. The number of boys is more than the number of girls by 12% of the total strength of the class. The ratio of the number of boys to that of the girls is
a. 11:14 b. 14:11 c. 25:28 d. 28:25
12. A person has deposited Rs. 13,200 in a bank which pays 14% interest. He withdraws the money and invests in Rs. 100 stocks at Rs. 110 which pays a dividend of 15% how much does he gain or lose
a. Loses Rs. 48 b. Gains Rs. 48 c. Loses Rs. 132 d. Gains Rs. 132
13. The marked price of a certain commodity is 30% higher than its cost price . A discount of 20% on the marked price makes the selling price Rs. 208. What is the net profit as a percent of the cost price ?
a. 10% b. 4% c. 8% d. 12%
14. Cloth makers Inc has P spindles , each of which can produce Q meters of cloth on an average in r minute . If the spindles are made to run with no interruption, then how many hours will it take for 20,000 meters of cloth to be produced ?
a. 20000(pq)/r b. 20000(rq)/p c. 20000(pr)/(pq) d. 20000r/60(pq)
15. If a % of x equal to b% of y, then c% of y is what % of x ?
a. c% b. ac/b% c. bc/a% d. abc%
16. In a class , 40% of the boys are same as ½ of the girls and there are 20 girls . Total number of students in the class is
a. 70 b. 45 c. 35 d. 25
17. Machine A produces bolts at a uniform rate of 120 every 40seconds, and machine B produces bolts at a uniform rate of 100 every 20 seconds. If two machines run simultaneously, then how many seconds will it take them to produce a total of 200 bolts ?
a. 22 b. 25 c. 28 d. 32
18. In a shipment of 120 machine parts, 5 percent were defective. In a shipment of 80 machine parts , 10 percent were defective . For the two shipment combined , what percent of the machine parts were defective ?
a. 6.5% b. 7.0% c. 7.5% d. 8.0%
19. The cost price of 20 articles is the same as the selling price of x articles . If the profit is 25% , then the value of x is
a. 25 b. 18 c. 16 d. 15
20. A screw driver and a hammer currently have the same price . If the price of a screw driver rises by 5% and the price of hammer goes up by 3% , then how much more will it cost to buy 3 screw drivers and 3 hammers ?
a. 3% b. 4% c. 5% d. 8%
21. Village A has a population of 6800, which is decreasing at the rate of 120per year . Village B has a population of 4200, which is increasing at the rate of 80per year. In how many year will the population of the two villages be equal ?
a. 9 b. 11 c. 13 d. 16
22. Ravi’s salary is 150% of Amit’s salary. Amit’s salary is 80% of Ram salary. What is the ratio of Ram’s salary to Ravi’s salary?
a. 1 to 2 b. 2 to 3 c. 5to 6 d. 6 to 5
23. A scoter costs Rs. 25,000 when it is brand new. At the end of each year , its value is only 80% of what it was at the beginning of the 3 years ?
a. Rs. 10,000 b. Rs. 12,500 c. Rs. 12,800 d. Rs. 12,000
24. Running at the same constant rate , 6 identical machines can produce a total of 270 bottels per minute . At this rate , how many bottles could 10 such machines produce in 4 minutes
a. 648 b. 1,800 c. 2,700 d. 10,800
25. A man sells an article at 5% profit. If he had bought it at 5% less and sold it for Rs. 1 less , he would have gained 10% . The cost price of the article is
a. Rs. 200 b. Rs. 150 c. Rs. 250 d. Rs. 240
ANSWERS Aptitude TEST 2
1. C 2. B 3. A 4. B 5. D
6. A 7. A 8. D 9. C 10. D
11. B 12. A 13. B 14. D 15. B
16. B 17. B 18. B 19. A 20. B
21. C 22. C 23. C 24. B 25. A
1. After doing 3/5 of the biology homework on Monday night , Sanjay did 1/3 of the remaining home work on Tuesday night. What fraction of the original homework would Sanjay have to do on Wednesday night to complete the biology assignment
a. 1/15 b. 2/15 c. 4/15 d. 2/5
2. In a house society , 30 percent of the residents are men over the age of 18 and 40 percent are woman over the age of 18. If there are 24 children living in the housing society , then how many total residents live ?
a. 32 b. 80 c. 94 d. 112
3. The binary Ice Cream shopper sells two flavours: vanilla and chocolate . On Friday the ratio of sold was 2:3. If the store had 4 more vanilla cones , then the ratio of vanilla comes sold to the chocolate cones sold would have been 3:4. How many vanilla cones did the store sell on Friday
a. 32 b. 35 c. 42 d. 48
4. A store raised the price of an item by exactly 10 percent. Which of the following could not be the resulting price of the item ?
a. Rs. 5.50 b. Rs. 7.60 c. Rs. 11.00 d. Rs. 12.10
5. The price for a pair of cuff links is Rs. 1.00. The price for a 5-pair package of cuff links is Rs. 3.40. The 5-pair package is what percent cheaper per pair than 5 pairs purchased separately ?
a. 63% b. 62% c. 47% d. 32%
6. A company bought a total of 60 computers and 20 printers to modernize billing operations. If the price of each computer was three times the price of each printer, then what percent of the total cost of the purchase was the total cost of the printer ?
a. 10% b. 11% c. 15% d. 20%
7. At a college football game , 4/5 of the seats in the lower deck of the stadium were sold. If ¼ of all the seating in the stadium is located in the lower deck, and if 2/3 of all the seats ill the stadium were sold, then what fraction of the unsold seats in the stadium was in the lower deck ?
a. 3/20 b. 1/6 c. 1/5 d. 1/3
8. Peter got 30% of the maximum marks in an examination and failed by 10 marks. However, paul who took the same examination got 40% of the total marks and got 15 marks more than the passing marks. What were the passing marks in the examination
a. 35 b. 250 c. 75 d. 85
9. 37.85% and 92% alcoholic solutions are mixed to get 35 litres of an 89% alcoholic solutions. How many litres each solution are there in the new mixture ?
a. 10 of the first and 25 of the second b. 20 of the first and 15 of the second
c. 15 of the first and 20 of the second d. 12 of the first and 23 of the second
10. The length of a rectangular plot is increased by 25%. To keep its area unchanged, the width of the plot should be
a. Keep unchanged b. Increased by 25% c. Increased by 20% d. Reduced by 20%
11. The number of boys is more than the number of girls by 12% of the total strength of the class. The ratio of the number of boys to that of the girls is
a. 11:14 b. 14:11 c. 25:28 d. 28:25
12. A person has deposited Rs. 13,200 in a bank which pays 14% interest. He withdraws the money and invests in Rs. 100 stocks at Rs. 110 which pays a dividend of 15% how much does he gain or lose
a. Loses Rs. 48 b. Gains Rs. 48 c. Loses Rs. 132 d. Gains Rs. 132
13. The marked price of a certain commodity is 30% higher than its cost price . A discount of 20% on the marked price makes the selling price Rs. 208. What is the net profit as a percent of the cost price ?
a. 10% b. 4% c. 8% d. 12%
14. Cloth makers Inc has P spindles , each of which can produce Q meters of cloth on an average in r minute . If the spindles are made to run with no interruption, then how many hours will it take for 20,000 meters of cloth to be produced ?
a. 20000(pq)/r b. 20000(rq)/p c. 20000(pr)/(pq) d. 20000r/60(pq)
15. If a % of x equal to b% of y, then c% of y is what % of x ?
a. c% b. ac/b% c. bc/a% d. abc%
16. In a class , 40% of the boys are same as ½ of the girls and there are 20 girls . Total number of students in the class is
a. 70 b. 45 c. 35 d. 25
17. Machine A produces bolts at a uniform rate of 120 every 40seconds, and machine B produces bolts at a uniform rate of 100 every 20 seconds. If two machines run simultaneously, then how many seconds will it take them to produce a total of 200 bolts ?
a. 22 b. 25 c. 28 d. 32
18. In a shipment of 120 machine parts, 5 percent were defective. In a shipment of 80 machine parts , 10 percent were defective . For the two shipment combined , what percent of the machine parts were defective ?
a. 6.5% b. 7.0% c. 7.5% d. 8.0%
19. The cost price of 20 articles is the same as the selling price of x articles . If the profit is 25% , then the value of x is
a. 25 b. 18 c. 16 d. 15
20. A screw driver and a hammer currently have the same price . If the price of a screw driver rises by 5% and the price of hammer goes up by 3% , then how much more will it cost to buy 3 screw drivers and 3 hammers ?
a. 3% b. 4% c. 5% d. 8%
21. Village A has a population of 6800, which is decreasing at the rate of 120per year . Village B has a population of 4200, which is increasing at the rate of 80per year. In how many year will the population of the two villages be equal ?
a. 9 b. 11 c. 13 d. 16
22. Ravi’s salary is 150% of Amit’s salary. Amit’s salary is 80% of Ram salary. What is the ratio of Ram’s salary to Ravi’s salary?
a. 1 to 2 b. 2 to 3 c. 5to 6 d. 6 to 5
23. A scoter costs Rs. 25,000 when it is brand new. At the end of each year , its value is only 80% of what it was at the beginning of the 3 years ?
a. Rs. 10,000 b. Rs. 12,500 c. Rs. 12,800 d. Rs. 12,000
24. Running at the same constant rate , 6 identical machines can produce a total of 270 bottels per minute . At this rate , how many bottles could 10 such machines produce in 4 minutes
a. 648 b. 1,800 c. 2,700 d. 10,800
25. A man sells an article at 5% profit. If he had bought it at 5% less and sold it for Rs. 1 less , he would have gained 10% . The cost price of the article is
a. Rs. 200 b. Rs. 150 c. Rs. 250 d. Rs. 240
ANSWERS Aptitude TEST 2
1. C 2. B 3. A 4. B 5. D
6. A 7. A 8. D 9. C 10. D
11. B 12. A 13. B 14. D 15. B
16. B 17. B 18. B 19. A 20. B
21. C 22. C 23. C 24. B 25. A
SERIES
Finding wrong Term Test 1
1. Find the wrong term of the series—
2,4,3,9,4,4,15,5,25………
a. 15 b. 9 c. 5 d. 25
2. Find the wrong term of the series—
8,14,26,48,98,194,386.
a. 14 b. 26 c. 48 d. 98
3. Find the wrong term of the series—
3,4,12,48,586.
a. 4 b. 12 c. 48 d. 586
4. Find the wrong term of the series—
13,19,23,31,43,59,68,77.
a. 29 b. 31 c. 68 d. 59
5. Find the wrong term of the series—
864,420,200,96,40,16,6.
a. 96 b. 40 c. 420 d. 16
6. Find the wrong term of the series—
87,14,28,13,5,2,2.
a. 88 b. 54 c. 28 d. 13
7. Find the wrong term of the series—
7,8,10,14,17,22
a. 7 b. 17 c. 14 d. 28
8. Find the wrong term of the series—
2,3,12,37,86,166,288
a. 12 b. 37 c. 86 d. 166
9. Find the wrong term of the series—
4,9,19,43,90,185,376.
a. 19 b. 43 c. 90 d. 375
10. Find the wrong term of the series—
4,10,23,50,104,216,439.
a. 50 b. 104 c. 216 d. 439
11. Find the wrong term of the series—
15,21,27,34,39,45.
a. 45 b. 39 c. 27 d. 34
12. Find the wrong term of the series—
4,10,22,40,64,84,130.
a. 10 b. 40 c. 64 d. 84
13. Find the wrong term of the series—
9,15,24,34,51,69,90.
a. 15 b. 34 c. 69 d. 90
14. Find the wrong term of the series—
31,41,51,61,71.
a. 51 b. 71 c. 41 d. 61
15. Find the wrong term of the series—
1,2,6,21,86,445,2676
a. 21 b. 86 c. 445 d. 2676
16. Find the wrong term of the series—
2,4,8,16,48,64,128,256.
a. 8 b. 16 c. 48 d. 64
17. Find the wrong term of the series—
144,121,100,81,64,49,35,25.
a. 121 b. 81 c. 35 d. 64
18. Find the wrong term of the series—
21,12,27,72,45,55.
a. 45 b. 72 c. 55 d. 27
19. Find the wrong term of the series—
1,2,6,24,120,620,5040.
a. 6 b. 24 c. 120 d. 620
20. Find the wrong term of the series—
2,5,11,27,58,121,248.
a. 11 b. 27 c. 58 d. 121
21. Find the wrong term of the series—
2,6,24,120,710,5040.
a. 710 b. 120 c. 5040 d. 24
22. Find the wrong term of the series—
3,10,19,30,43,60,75.
a. 19 b. 30 c. 43 d. 60
23. Find the wrong term of the series—
276,140,68,38,16,10,3.
a. 68 b. 38 c. 16 d. 10
24. Find the wrong term of the series--
7,8,18,57,235,1165.
a. 18 b. 57 c. 235 d. 1165
25. Find the wrong term of the series—
2,9,11,3,10,13,4,11,16.
a. 13 b. 16 c. 9 d. 11
Finding wrong Term Test 1
1. A 2. C 3. D 4. C 5. A
6. B 7. C 8. D 9. A 10. B
11. D 12. D 13. B 14. A 15. B
16. C 17. C 18. C 19. D 20. A
21. A 22. D 23. B 24. C 25. B
1. Find the wrong term of the series—
2,4,3,9,4,4,15,5,25………
a. 15 b. 9 c. 5 d. 25
2. Find the wrong term of the series—
8,14,26,48,98,194,386.
a. 14 b. 26 c. 48 d. 98
3. Find the wrong term of the series—
3,4,12,48,586.
a. 4 b. 12 c. 48 d. 586
4. Find the wrong term of the series—
13,19,23,31,43,59,68,77.
a. 29 b. 31 c. 68 d. 59
5. Find the wrong term of the series—
864,420,200,96,40,16,6.
a. 96 b. 40 c. 420 d. 16
6. Find the wrong term of the series—
87,14,28,13,5,2,2.
a. 88 b. 54 c. 28 d. 13
7. Find the wrong term of the series—
7,8,10,14,17,22
a. 7 b. 17 c. 14 d. 28
8. Find the wrong term of the series—
2,3,12,37,86,166,288
a. 12 b. 37 c. 86 d. 166
9. Find the wrong term of the series—
4,9,19,43,90,185,376.
a. 19 b. 43 c. 90 d. 375
10. Find the wrong term of the series—
4,10,23,50,104,216,439.
a. 50 b. 104 c. 216 d. 439
11. Find the wrong term of the series—
15,21,27,34,39,45.
a. 45 b. 39 c. 27 d. 34
12. Find the wrong term of the series—
4,10,22,40,64,84,130.
a. 10 b. 40 c. 64 d. 84
13. Find the wrong term of the series—
9,15,24,34,51,69,90.
a. 15 b. 34 c. 69 d. 90
14. Find the wrong term of the series—
31,41,51,61,71.
a. 51 b. 71 c. 41 d. 61
15. Find the wrong term of the series—
1,2,6,21,86,445,2676
a. 21 b. 86 c. 445 d. 2676
16. Find the wrong term of the series—
2,4,8,16,48,64,128,256.
a. 8 b. 16 c. 48 d. 64
17. Find the wrong term of the series—
144,121,100,81,64,49,35,25.
a. 121 b. 81 c. 35 d. 64
18. Find the wrong term of the series—
21,12,27,72,45,55.
a. 45 b. 72 c. 55 d. 27
19. Find the wrong term of the series—
1,2,6,24,120,620,5040.
a. 6 b. 24 c. 120 d. 620
20. Find the wrong term of the series—
2,5,11,27,58,121,248.
a. 11 b. 27 c. 58 d. 121
21. Find the wrong term of the series—
2,6,24,120,710,5040.
a. 710 b. 120 c. 5040 d. 24
22. Find the wrong term of the series—
3,10,19,30,43,60,75.
a. 19 b. 30 c. 43 d. 60
23. Find the wrong term of the series—
276,140,68,38,16,10,3.
a. 68 b. 38 c. 16 d. 10
24. Find the wrong term of the series--
7,8,18,57,235,1165.
a. 18 b. 57 c. 235 d. 1165
25. Find the wrong term of the series—
2,9,11,3,10,13,4,11,16.
a. 13 b. 16 c. 9 d. 11
Finding wrong Term Test 1
1. A 2. C 3. D 4. C 5. A
6. B 7. C 8. D 9. A 10. B
11. D 12. D 13. B 14. A 15. B
16. C 17. C 18. C 19. D 20. A
21. A 22. D 23. B 24. C 25. B
DATA STRUCTURES
1. Comparisons required to insert a node after the last node in a circular linked list is
a. O(logn)
b. O(n)
c. O(1)
d. None of the above
2. The average case analysis of Linear search on the array of size n requires …….. comparison
a. n/2
b. n
c. (n-1)/2
d. (n+1)/2
3. The address of element P[6,12] in the row major order array P[-1:10, -2:20] where every element takes 2 bytes of storage with base address 2000 is ………..
4. Match the elements of table1 with table2.
Table 1 Table 2
-------------------------------------------------------
1. Linear search(worst case) a. O(nlogn)
2. Quick sort (worst case) b. O(n)
3. Binary Search (best case) c. O(n2)
4. Merge Sort (average case) d. O(1)
5. Minimum no of scalar multiplication required to multiply Matrices A1, A2, A3 of size 15x25, 25x100, 100x5 is …………………
6. We store a triangular sparse array of size nxn in a two dimensional array storing only the nonzero elements. The base address of such an array is 1000, what will be the address of element A[100,50]? (consider every element occupies 1 word of m/y).
7. Pick the odd one out
a. Adjacency matrix of the tree graph
b. Identity matrix
c. Tridiagonal matrix
d. Adjacency matrix of the complete graph
8. Minimum no of pointer adjustment for deletion of last node from doubly linked list is
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
9. For conversion of infix expression given below to postfix, no of PUSH and POP operation performed is…………………..
a * b + c / d ↑ e ↑ f
10. PUSH and POP operations for evaluation of postfix expression 4 3 2 ↑ * 6 – 8+ is
a. 9 PUSH, 8 POP
b. 5 PUSH, 4 POP
c. 5 PUSH, 9 POP
d. 9 PUSH, 9 POP
11. Best suited data structure to find the validity of mathematical expression with all types of brackets e.g. [ ], { }, ( ) is ……………
12. Wich among the following sorting technique is stable
a. Bubble
b. Selection
c. Counting
d. Merge
13. The expression a ↑ b ↑ c * d *e / f / g / h in polish notation is ……………………
14. Which among the following algorithm requires application of stacks (directly or indirectly)
a. Quick sort
b. Heap sort
c. Selection sort
d. Bubble sort
15. Arrange the following algorithm in increasing order in terms of worst case run time
a. Sequential search
b. Bubble sort
c. Binary search
d. Heap sort
16. The stack can be used to find if the given string is palindrome or not. No of POP operations required to do the same on the string MISSISSIM is ……………….
17. Evaluated value of expression - + * 4 2 9 / 6 2 is …………..
18. Circular queue has advantage over linear queue. Reason for the same is ……………………………………
19. consider the double ended queue given below
Right Left
A B C D E F
The overflow occurs when
a. Left = Right
b. Left + 1 = Right
c. Left = right +1
d. None
20. Applying the quick sort algorithm on set <100, 50, 20 , 120 , 70, 30, 150, 10, 40>, no of elements in left and right half after the first pass is:
21. Which among the following is not an application of data structure
a. Symbol table
b. Storage & retrieval of large volume of data
c. Sorting
d. Machine learning
22. Which among the following algorithms does not require the sorted set as pre-requisite
a. Merge
b. Sequential search
c. Binary search
d. Index-Sequential search
23. Pick the odd one out
a. Data type
b. Data object
c. Abstract data type
d. Data line
24. Which triplet defines the abstract data type
25. Arranging the set of strings alphabetically is called ……………………………..
Answers
1. c
2. d
3. 2348
4. 1-b, 2-c, 3-d, 4-a
5. 14375
6. 6000
7. d
8. a
9. PUSH-5, POP-5
10. d
11. stacks
12. c
13. ///**↑a↑bcdefgh
14. a
15. c a d b
16. 5
17. 14
18. circular queue takes optimum utilization of the space whereas in the linear queue when the rear pointer reaches maximum position, no more elements can be added in the queue even if the positions preceding it are empty.
19. c
20. 6, 2
21. d
22. b
23. d
24.
25. Lexicographic ordering
a. O(logn)
b. O(n)
c. O(1)
d. None of the above
2. The average case analysis of Linear search on the array of size n requires …….. comparison
a. n/2
b. n
c. (n-1)/2
d. (n+1)/2
3. The address of element P[6,12] in the row major order array P[-1:10, -2:20] where every element takes 2 bytes of storage with base address 2000 is ………..
4. Match the elements of table1 with table2.
Table 1 Table 2
-------------------------------------------------------
1. Linear search(worst case) a. O(nlogn)
2. Quick sort (worst case) b. O(n)
3. Binary Search (best case) c. O(n2)
4. Merge Sort (average case) d. O(1)
5. Minimum no of scalar multiplication required to multiply Matrices A1, A2, A3 of size 15x25, 25x100, 100x5 is …………………
6. We store a triangular sparse array of size nxn in a two dimensional array storing only the nonzero elements. The base address of such an array is 1000, what will be the address of element A[100,50]? (consider every element occupies 1 word of m/y).
7. Pick the odd one out
a. Adjacency matrix of the tree graph
b. Identity matrix
c. Tridiagonal matrix
d. Adjacency matrix of the complete graph
8. Minimum no of pointer adjustment for deletion of last node from doubly linked list is
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
9. For conversion of infix expression given below to postfix, no of PUSH and POP operation performed is…………………..
a * b + c / d ↑ e ↑ f
10. PUSH and POP operations for evaluation of postfix expression 4 3 2 ↑ * 6 – 8+ is
a. 9 PUSH, 8 POP
b. 5 PUSH, 4 POP
c. 5 PUSH, 9 POP
d. 9 PUSH, 9 POP
11. Best suited data structure to find the validity of mathematical expression with all types of brackets e.g. [ ], { }, ( ) is ……………
12. Wich among the following sorting technique is stable
a. Bubble
b. Selection
c. Counting
d. Merge
13. The expression a ↑ b ↑ c * d *e / f / g / h in polish notation is ……………………
14. Which among the following algorithm requires application of stacks (directly or indirectly)
a. Quick sort
b. Heap sort
c. Selection sort
d. Bubble sort
15. Arrange the following algorithm in increasing order in terms of worst case run time
a. Sequential search
b. Bubble sort
c. Binary search
d. Heap sort
16. The stack can be used to find if the given string is palindrome or not. No of POP operations required to do the same on the string MISSISSIM is ……………….
17. Evaluated value of expression - + * 4 2 9 / 6 2 is …………..
18. Circular queue has advantage over linear queue. Reason for the same is ……………………………………
19. consider the double ended queue given below
Right Left
A B C D E F
The overflow occurs when
a. Left = Right
b. Left + 1 = Right
c. Left = right +1
d. None
20. Applying the quick sort algorithm on set <100, 50, 20 , 120 , 70, 30, 150, 10, 40>, no of elements in left and right half after the first pass is:
21. Which among the following is not an application of data structure
a. Symbol table
b. Storage & retrieval of large volume of data
c. Sorting
d. Machine learning
22. Which among the following algorithms does not require the sorted set as pre-requisite
a. Merge
b. Sequential search
c. Binary search
d. Index-Sequential search
23. Pick the odd one out
a. Data type
b. Data object
c. Abstract data type
d. Data line
24. Which triplet defines the abstract data type
25. Arranging the set of strings alphabetically is called ……………………………..
Answers
1. c
2. d
3. 2348
4. 1-b, 2-c, 3-d, 4-a
5. 14375
6. 6000
7. d
8. a
9. PUSH-5, POP-5
10. d
11. stacks
12. c
13. ///**↑a↑bcdefgh
14. a
15. c a d b
16. 5
17. 14
18. circular queue takes optimum utilization of the space whereas in the linear queue when the rear pointer reaches maximum position, no more elements can be added in the queue even if the positions preceding it are empty.
19. c
20. 6, 2
21. d
22. b
23. d
24.
25. Lexicographic ordering
REASONING
REASONING (ALL TYPES)
Directions (Qs. 1-5): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below it:
(1) Six friends Asad, Babli, Cajole, Dev, Eva and Fatima are sitting in a closed circle facing the center.
(2) Cajole is between Asad and Babli.
(3) Fatima is between Eva and Asad.
(4) Eva is to the left of Dev
1. Who is on the left of Babli?
(1) Asad
(2) Cajole
(3) Dev
(4) Eva
(5) None of these
2. Who is on the left of Cajole?
(1) Dev
(2) Eva
(3) Asad
(4) Fatima
(5) None of these
3. Which pair of friends is sitting on the opposite of each other?
(1) Dev, Asad
(2) Dev, Babli
(3) Asad, Fatima
(4) Cajole, Babli
(5) None of these
4. Which of the following is sitting on the right side of Fatima?
(1) Eva
(2) Dev
(3) Asad
(4) Babli
(5) Cajole
5. Which of the above given statements is superfluous?
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
(5) None of these
Directions (Qs. 6-11): Find the odd word/letters/number/figures from the given responses.
6. (1) Analysis
(2) Search
(3) Conclusion
(4) Investigation
7. (1) Reward—Punishment
(2) Object—Permit
(3) Sharp—Blunt
(4) Cold—Cool
8. (1) DCFG
(2) FEHI
(3) HGIK
(4) JILM
9. (1) ZVRN
(2) UQMJ
(3) SOKG
(4) TPLH
10. (1) 27
(2) 64
(3) 125
(4) 144
11. (1) 52, 68
(2) 63, 77
(3) 64, 80
(4) 50, 66
12. BMO, EOQ, HQS, _ ? _
(1)SOW
(2) LMN
(3) KSU
(4) SOV
13. 5, 9, 13, 17, ?, 25.
(1) 27
(2) 23
(3) 21
(4) 19
14. 5, 2, 7, 9, 16, 25, ? .
(1) 41
(2) 52
(3) 48
(4) 45
15. 4117, 5138, 6159, 7125, ?.
(1) 7138
(2) 7659
(3) 8115
(4) 8179
Directions (Qs. 16-19):, some questions are solved on the basis of a certain system. On the same basis, find out the correct answer from amongst the four alternatives for the unsolved equation in each question.
16. Let J = 1, K = 2, L = 5, M = 7, N = 11, O = 13, P = 17.
Find the letter to be inserted in the box in the relation given:
(N × ? + M) ÷ K = 31
(1) L
(2) P
(3) J
(4) O
17. If 7 × 3 ÷ 8 stands for 80 then 8 ÷ 2 × 9 will stand for what?
(1) 90
(2) 25
(2) 19
(4) 10
18. The power and square root places in the equation below require numbers to be inserted: Find out the correct set of two numbers from the given alternatives.
(1) 2, 4
(2) 5, 81
(3) 4, 16
(4) 2, 25
19. 2 * 6 * 8 = 43664
3 * 4 * 7 = 91649
5 * 7 * 9 = ?
(1) 251681
(2) 121614
(3) 356345
(4) 254981
Directions (Qs. 20-24): In each of the questions below are given three statements followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
Statements:
20. Some books are tables.
Some tables are houses.
Some houses are roads.
Conclusions:
I. Some roads are tables.
II. Some roads are books.
III. Some houses are books.
(1) None follows
(2) Only I and II follow
(3) Only II and III follow
(4) Only I and III follow
(5) All follow
Statements:
21. All pencils are tiles.
Some tiles are umbrellas.
All umbrellas are shirts.
Conclusions:
I. Some shirts are pencils.
II. Some shirts are tiles.
III. Some umbrellas are pencils.
(1) None follows
(2) Only I follows
(3) Only II follows
(4) Only III follows
(5) Only II and III follow
Statements:
22. All trains are birds.
All papers are birds.
All desks are birds.
Conclusions:
I. Some desks are trains.
II. Some trains are papers.
III. Some papers are desks.
(1) None follows
(2) Only I and II follow
(3) Only I and III follow
(4) Only II and III follow
(5) All follow
Statements:
23. Some flowers are leaves.
Some leaves are benches.
All benches are chairs.
Conclusions:
I. Some flowers are chairs.
II. Some leaves are chairs.
III. Some benches are flowers.
(1) Only I follows
(2) Only III follows
(3) Only II follows
(4) Only II and III follow
(5) None of these
Statements:
24. All poles are trees.
All trees are rooms.
All rooms are walls.
Conclusions:
I. All poles are walls.
II. Some walls are trees.
III. Some rooms are trees.
(1) Only I and II follow
(2) Only I and III follow
(3) Only II and III follow
(4) Only I follows
(5) All follow
Directions (Qs. 25-29): Read the following information and answer the questions.
Four people of different nations live on the same side of a sector in four houses each of different colour. Each person has a different favorites drink. The Englishman lives in the red house. The following additional information is:
—The Hindu drinks tea.
—The Muslim lives in the first house on the left.
—The Muslim lives adjacent to the blue house.
—In the second house from the right they drink coffee.
—The Sikh drinks banana shake.
—Tea is drunk in the blue house
—The pink house is to the right of red house
25. Which of the following drink coffee?
(1) Muslim
(2) Hindu
(3) Englishman
(4) Muslim and Hindu
(5) None of the above
26. The colour of Sikh house is:
(1) yellow
(2) blue
(2) red
(4) pink
(5) None
27. The Muslim drinks which of the following drink:
(1) tea
(2) coffee
(3) banana shake
(4) tea, coffee
(5) milk
28. Who sits adjacent to Muslim?
(1) Hindu
(2) Englishman
(3) Sikh
(4) Both Hindu and Sikh
(5) None of the above
29. Which of the following statement is not true?
(1) Hindu lives in the blue house
(2) Sikh drinks banana shake and his colour of house is pink
(3) Muslim drinks coffee
(4) Yellow house is occupied by Muslim
(5) None of the above
ANSWERS:
.
1. (3) Dev.
2. (5) Because Babli is on the left of Cajole. (see diagram.)
3. (1) Dev, Asad.
4. (1) Clearly, Eva.
5. (5) since all the statements are necessary to determine the
arrangement.
6. (3) The other three are alike.
7. (4) All the others are antonyms
8. (3) In all the others one letter is missing CD(E)FG.
9. (2) All the others have gap of three letters.
10. (4) All the others are cubes 33 = 27; 43 = 64, 53 = 125;
122 = 144.
11. (2) In all the others 16 are added to the first number.
12. (C) First letter B (CD) E (FG) H (IJ) K
Second letter M (N) O (P) Q (R) S
Third letter O (P) Q (R) S (T) U, hence K S U
13. (C) Go on adding 4 to numbers.
14. (A) Each number is the total of two preceding numbers.
15. (D) The number in the middle is the total of first and fourth digits, 4 + 7 = 11, 5 + 8 = 13 and so on.
16. (A)
17. (B) (7 + 3) × 8 = 80; (8 × 2) + 9 = 25; × means + and ÷ Means ×.
18. (D)
19. (D) the arrangement is 52, 72, 92 i.e. 254981.
20. (1)
21. (3)
22. (1)
23. (3)
24. (5)
(25 to 29) Based on given information, the correct sequence of data is as follows.
Colour Nationality Drink Yellow Blue Red Pink
Muslim Hindu Englishman Sikh
Milk Tea Coffee Banana shake
25. (3) see chart.
26. (4)
27. (5) Although it is not mentioned in the question but it appear that milk is his drink.
28. (1)
29. (3) (Muslim drinks milk—it is assumed
Directions (Qs. 1-5): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below it:
(1) Six friends Asad, Babli, Cajole, Dev, Eva and Fatima are sitting in a closed circle facing the center.
(2) Cajole is between Asad and Babli.
(3) Fatima is between Eva and Asad.
(4) Eva is to the left of Dev
1. Who is on the left of Babli?
(1) Asad
(2) Cajole
(3) Dev
(4) Eva
(5) None of these
2. Who is on the left of Cajole?
(1) Dev
(2) Eva
(3) Asad
(4) Fatima
(5) None of these
3. Which pair of friends is sitting on the opposite of each other?
(1) Dev, Asad
(2) Dev, Babli
(3) Asad, Fatima
(4) Cajole, Babli
(5) None of these
4. Which of the following is sitting on the right side of Fatima?
(1) Eva
(2) Dev
(3) Asad
(4) Babli
(5) Cajole
5. Which of the above given statements is superfluous?
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
(5) None of these
Directions (Qs. 6-11): Find the odd word/letters/number/figures from the given responses.
6. (1) Analysis
(2) Search
(3) Conclusion
(4) Investigation
7. (1) Reward—Punishment
(2) Object—Permit
(3) Sharp—Blunt
(4) Cold—Cool
8. (1) DCFG
(2) FEHI
(3) HGIK
(4) JILM
9. (1) ZVRN
(2) UQMJ
(3) SOKG
(4) TPLH
10. (1) 27
(2) 64
(3) 125
(4) 144
11. (1) 52, 68
(2) 63, 77
(3) 64, 80
(4) 50, 66
12. BMO, EOQ, HQS, _ ? _
(1)SOW
(2) LMN
(3) KSU
(4) SOV
13. 5, 9, 13, 17, ?, 25.
(1) 27
(2) 23
(3) 21
(4) 19
14. 5, 2, 7, 9, 16, 25, ? .
(1) 41
(2) 52
(3) 48
(4) 45
15. 4117, 5138, 6159, 7125, ?.
(1) 7138
(2) 7659
(3) 8115
(4) 8179
Directions (Qs. 16-19):, some questions are solved on the basis of a certain system. On the same basis, find out the correct answer from amongst the four alternatives for the unsolved equation in each question.
16. Let J = 1, K = 2, L = 5, M = 7, N = 11, O = 13, P = 17.
Find the letter to be inserted in the box in the relation given:
(N × ? + M) ÷ K = 31
(1) L
(2) P
(3) J
(4) O
17. If 7 × 3 ÷ 8 stands for 80 then 8 ÷ 2 × 9 will stand for what?
(1) 90
(2) 25
(2) 19
(4) 10
18. The power and square root places in the equation below require numbers to be inserted: Find out the correct set of two numbers from the given alternatives.
(1) 2, 4
(2) 5, 81
(3) 4, 16
(4) 2, 25
19. 2 * 6 * 8 = 43664
3 * 4 * 7 = 91649
5 * 7 * 9 = ?
(1) 251681
(2) 121614
(3) 356345
(4) 254981
Directions (Qs. 20-24): In each of the questions below are given three statements followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
Statements:
20. Some books are tables.
Some tables are houses.
Some houses are roads.
Conclusions:
I. Some roads are tables.
II. Some roads are books.
III. Some houses are books.
(1) None follows
(2) Only I and II follow
(3) Only II and III follow
(4) Only I and III follow
(5) All follow
Statements:
21. All pencils are tiles.
Some tiles are umbrellas.
All umbrellas are shirts.
Conclusions:
I. Some shirts are pencils.
II. Some shirts are tiles.
III. Some umbrellas are pencils.
(1) None follows
(2) Only I follows
(3) Only II follows
(4) Only III follows
(5) Only II and III follow
Statements:
22. All trains are birds.
All papers are birds.
All desks are birds.
Conclusions:
I. Some desks are trains.
II. Some trains are papers.
III. Some papers are desks.
(1) None follows
(2) Only I and II follow
(3) Only I and III follow
(4) Only II and III follow
(5) All follow
Statements:
23. Some flowers are leaves.
Some leaves are benches.
All benches are chairs.
Conclusions:
I. Some flowers are chairs.
II. Some leaves are chairs.
III. Some benches are flowers.
(1) Only I follows
(2) Only III follows
(3) Only II follows
(4) Only II and III follow
(5) None of these
Statements:
24. All poles are trees.
All trees are rooms.
All rooms are walls.
Conclusions:
I. All poles are walls.
II. Some walls are trees.
III. Some rooms are trees.
(1) Only I and II follow
(2) Only I and III follow
(3) Only II and III follow
(4) Only I follows
(5) All follow
Directions (Qs. 25-29): Read the following information and answer the questions.
Four people of different nations live on the same side of a sector in four houses each of different colour. Each person has a different favorites drink. The Englishman lives in the red house. The following additional information is:
—The Hindu drinks tea.
—The Muslim lives in the first house on the left.
—The Muslim lives adjacent to the blue house.
—In the second house from the right they drink coffee.
—The Sikh drinks banana shake.
—Tea is drunk in the blue house
—The pink house is to the right of red house
25. Which of the following drink coffee?
(1) Muslim
(2) Hindu
(3) Englishman
(4) Muslim and Hindu
(5) None of the above
26. The colour of Sikh house is:
(1) yellow
(2) blue
(2) red
(4) pink
(5) None
27. The Muslim drinks which of the following drink:
(1) tea
(2) coffee
(3) banana shake
(4) tea, coffee
(5) milk
28. Who sits adjacent to Muslim?
(1) Hindu
(2) Englishman
(3) Sikh
(4) Both Hindu and Sikh
(5) None of the above
29. Which of the following statement is not true?
(1) Hindu lives in the blue house
(2) Sikh drinks banana shake and his colour of house is pink
(3) Muslim drinks coffee
(4) Yellow house is occupied by Muslim
(5) None of the above
ANSWERS:
.
1. (3) Dev.
2. (5) Because Babli is on the left of Cajole. (see diagram.)
3. (1) Dev, Asad.
4. (1) Clearly, Eva.
5. (5) since all the statements are necessary to determine the
arrangement.
6. (3) The other three are alike.
7. (4) All the others are antonyms
8. (3) In all the others one letter is missing CD(E)FG.
9. (2) All the others have gap of three letters.
10. (4) All the others are cubes 33 = 27; 43 = 64, 53 = 125;
122 = 144.
11. (2) In all the others 16 are added to the first number.
12. (C) First letter B (CD) E (FG) H (IJ) K
Second letter M (N) O (P) Q (R) S
Third letter O (P) Q (R) S (T) U, hence K S U
13. (C) Go on adding 4 to numbers.
14. (A) Each number is the total of two preceding numbers.
15. (D) The number in the middle is the total of first and fourth digits, 4 + 7 = 11, 5 + 8 = 13 and so on.
16. (A)
17. (B) (7 + 3) × 8 = 80; (8 × 2) + 9 = 25; × means + and ÷ Means ×.
18. (D)
19. (D) the arrangement is 52, 72, 92 i.e. 254981.
20. (1)
21. (3)
22. (1)
23. (3)
24. (5)
(25 to 29) Based on given information, the correct sequence of data is as follows.
Colour Nationality Drink Yellow Blue Red Pink
Muslim Hindu Englishman Sikh
Milk Tea Coffee Banana shake
25. (3) see chart.
26. (4)
27. (5) Although it is not mentioned in the question but it appear that milk is his drink.
28. (1)
29. (3) (Muslim drinks milk—it is assumed
DATA STRUCTURES
Data Structure Quiz 3
1. Pick the odd one out
a. Composite data type b. User defined data type c. stack d.Array
2. No. of elements in the array A[-2:5, -1:5, 0:5] is
a. 48 b. 125 c. 336 d. 512
3. Pick the odd one out
a. Counting sort b. Bucket sort c. Shell Sort d. Radix sort
4. The complexity of merge operation on two sorted arrays of size m & n (given m > n)
a. O(mn) b. O(m+n) c. O(m/n) d. O(m)
5. Pick the odd one out
a. Random Value b. Return Address c. Local variable space d. Global variable space
6. The function for which among the following will not be linear recursion
a. Factorial b. Fibonaci Series c. ab d. sum of the natural numbers
7. The Order followed by stack data structure is
a. Random b. FIFO c. LIFO d. None
8. How many stack will be needed for the evaluation of a prefix expression
a. 1 b. 2 c. 0 d. 3
9. If the two stacks are implemented on a single array, the overflow occurs at
a. top1=top2 b. top1=top2-1 c. top1-1=top2 d. none of these
10. If PRCD(x,y) is a function that returns TRUE is x has higher precedence that y or if x has the same precedence as that of y but left associative. A call for PRCD($,$) will return ($ is exponentiation)
11. No. of steps needed for transfer of n disks from Tower A to Tower B using Tower C in the Tower of Hanoi problem is
a. 2n b. 2n – 1 c. 2n+1 d. 2n-1
12. Which item is selected in the first partition of Set by quick sort if pivot element is first element?
a. D b. A c. C d. T
13. The array set after the Heapify heap operation changes to
…………………………………
14. What is the reason for selection of prime no in the division method of hashing?
………………………………….
15. The evaluated value of POSTFIX EXPRESSION 4 3 * 4 2 / - 3 2 $ 2 * + is ………………
16. a if a=b
gcd(a,b)= gcd(a-b, b) if a>b
gcd(a,b-a) if b>a
gcd(27,15)is ………………….
17. Match the elements of Table 1 with 2
Table 1 Table 2
a) Bubble Sort (Best case) i) O(n2)
b) Heap sort ii) O(nlog2n)
c) Quick sort (Worst case) iii) O(1)
d) Binary Search (worst case) iv) O(n)
18. The average number of probes required for successful search on Hash Table with 12 slots and Linear probing method for collision resolution with the following records is ………………..
19. Postfix Equivallent of A$B$C$D$E is
a. ABCDE$$$$ b. AB$C$D$D$E$ c. abc$$DE$$ d. ABCD$$$E$
20. How many calls for f(3) will be made for the following recurrence in the call of f(8)
0 n=1
f(n) = 1 n=2
f(n-1)+f(n-2) n>2
a. 7 b. 6 c. 5 d. 8
21. What are the notations used in Evaluation of Arithmetic Expressions using prefix and postfix forms?
22. Which of the following applications may use a stack?
A. A parentheses balancing program.
B. Keeping track of local variables at run time.
C. Syntax analyzer for a compiler.
D. All of the above.
23. Consider the following pseudocode:
declare a stack of characters
while ( there are more characters in the word to read )
{
read a character
push the character on the stack
}
while ( the stack is not empty )
{
write the stack's top character to the screen
pop a character off the stack
}
What is written to the screen for the input "carpets"?
A. serc
B. carpets
C. steprac
D. ccaarrppeettss
24.
declare a character stack
while ( more input is available)
{
read a character
if ( the character is a '(' )
push it on the stack
else if ( the character is a ')' and the stack is not empty )
pop a character off the stack
else
print "unbalanced" and exit
}
print "balanced"
Which of these unbalanced sequences does the above code think is balanced?
A. ((())
B. ())(()
C. (()()))
D. (()))()
25. Here is an infix expression: 4+3*(6*3-2). Suppose that we are using the usual stack algorithm to convert the expression from infix to postfix notation. What is the maximum number of symbols that will appear on the stack AT ONE TIME during the conversion of this expression?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
Answers:
1. d
2. c
3. c
4. b
5. d
6. b
7. b
8. c
9. a & b both
10. FALSE
11. b
12. a
13. V T L S R E I A O K
14. to avoid the collision
15. d
16. 3
17. a-iv b-ii c-i d-iii
18. 15/9
19. a
20. a
21. Polish and Reverse Polish notations.
22. d
23. c
24. b
25. d
1. Pick the odd one out
a. Composite data type b. User defined data type c. stack d.Array
2. No. of elements in the array A[-2:5, -1:5, 0:5] is
a. 48 b. 125 c. 336 d. 512
3. Pick the odd one out
a. Counting sort b. Bucket sort c. Shell Sort d. Radix sort
4. The complexity of merge operation on two sorted arrays of size m & n (given m > n)
a. O(mn) b. O(m+n) c. O(m/n) d. O(m)
5. Pick the odd one out
a. Random Value b. Return Address c. Local variable space d. Global variable space
6. The function for which among the following will not be linear recursion
a. Factorial b. Fibonaci Series c. ab d. sum of the natural numbers
7. The Order followed by stack data structure is
a. Random b. FIFO c. LIFO d. None
8. How many stack will be needed for the evaluation of a prefix expression
a. 1 b. 2 c. 0 d. 3
9. If the two stacks are implemented on a single array, the overflow occurs at
a. top1=top2 b. top1=top2-1 c. top1-1=top2 d. none of these
10. If PRCD(x,y) is a function that returns TRUE is x has higher precedence that y or if x has the same precedence as that of y but left associative. A call for PRCD($,$) will return ($ is exponentiation)
11. No. of steps needed for transfer of n disks from Tower A to Tower B using Tower C in the Tower of Hanoi problem is
a. 2n b. 2n – 1 c. 2n+1 d. 2n-1
12. Which item is selected in the first partition of Set
a. D b. A c. C d. T
13. The array set after the Heapify heap operation changes to
…………………………………
14. What is the reason for selection of prime no in the division method of hashing?
………………………………….
15. The evaluated value of POSTFIX EXPRESSION 4 3 * 4 2 / - 3 2 $ 2 * + is ………………
16. a if a=b
gcd(a,b)= gcd(a-b, b) if a>b
gcd(a,b-a) if b>a
gcd(27,15)is ………………….
17. Match the elements of Table 1 with 2
Table 1 Table 2
a) Bubble Sort (Best case) i) O(n2)
b) Heap sort ii) O(nlog2n)
c) Quick sort (Worst case) iii) O(1)
d) Binary Search (worst case) iv) O(n)
18. The average number of probes required for successful search on Hash Table with 12 slots and Linear probing method for collision resolution with the following records is ………………..
19. Postfix Equivallent of A$B$C$D$E is
a. ABCDE$$$$ b. AB$C$D$D$E$ c. abc$$DE$$ d. ABCD$$$E$
20. How many calls for f(3) will be made for the following recurrence in the call of f(8)
0 n=1
f(n) = 1 n=2
f(n-1)+f(n-2) n>2
a. 7 b. 6 c. 5 d. 8
21. What are the notations used in Evaluation of Arithmetic Expressions using prefix and postfix forms?
22. Which of the following applications may use a stack?
A. A parentheses balancing program.
B. Keeping track of local variables at run time.
C. Syntax analyzer for a compiler.
D. All of the above.
23. Consider the following pseudocode:
declare a stack of characters
while ( there are more characters in the word to read )
{
read a character
push the character on the stack
}
while ( the stack is not empty )
{
write the stack's top character to the screen
pop a character off the stack
}
What is written to the screen for the input "carpets"?
A. serc
B. carpets
C. steprac
D. ccaarrppeettss
24.
declare a character stack
while ( more input is available)
{
read a character
if ( the character is a '(' )
push it on the stack
else if ( the character is a ')' and the stack is not empty )
pop a character off the stack
else
print "unbalanced" and exit
}
print "balanced"
Which of these unbalanced sequences does the above code think is balanced?
A. ((())
B. ())(()
C. (()()))
D. (()))()
25. Here is an infix expression: 4+3*(6*3-2). Suppose that we are using the usual stack algorithm to convert the expression from infix to postfix notation. What is the maximum number of symbols that will appear on the stack AT ONE TIME during the conversion of this expression?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
Answers:
1. d
2. c
3. c
4. b
5. d
6. b
7. b
8. c
9. a & b both
10. FALSE
11. b
12. a
13. V T L S R E I A O K
14. to avoid the collision
15. d
16. 3
17. a-iv b-ii c-i d-iii
18. 15/9
19. a
20. a
21. Polish and Reverse Polish notations.
22. d
23. c
24. b
25. d
COMPLEXITIES
Find the time complexities of the following questions
Q1.T(n)=T(n-1)+n
a)O(n2) b)O(n log n) c)O(n) d)O(log n)
Q2.T(n)=2T(n/2)+c
a) O(n2) b)O(n log n) c)O(n) d)O(log n)
Q3.T(n)= 2T(n/2)+n
a O(n2) b)O(n log n) c)O(n) d)O(log n)
Q4.T(n)=3T(n/4)+c(n2)
a)O(n2) b)O(n log n) c)O(n) d)O(log n)
Q5.T(n)=2T(n/2+17)+O(n)
a) O(n2) b)O(n log n) c)O(n) d)O(log n)
Q6.T(n)=T(n/3)+T(2n/3)+O(n)
a) O(n2) b)O(n log n) c)O(n) d)O(log n)
Q7.T(n)=9T(n/3)+n
a)O(n2) b)O(n log n) c)O(n) d)O(log n)
Q8.T(n)=3T(n/4)+nlogn
a) O(n2) b)O(n log n) c)O(n) d)O(log n)
Q9.T(n)=T(2n/3)+1
a)O(n) b)O(n log n) c)O(n) d)O(log n)
Q10.T(n)=3T(n/2)+nlogn
a) O(n2) b)O(nlog 3) c)O(n) d)O(log n)
Q11.T(n)=4T(n/2)+n2√n
a) O(n2√n) b)O(n log n) c)O(n) d)O(log n)
Q12.T(n)=2T(n/2)+n/logn
a) O(n2) b)O(n log n) c)O(n) d)O(nloglog n)
Q13.T(n)=T(n/2)+T(n/4)+T(n/8)+n
a) O(n2) b)O(n log n) c)O(n) d)O(log n)
Q14.T(n)=T(n-1)+1/n
a) O(n2) b)O(n log n) c)O(n) d)O(log n)
Q15.T(n)=T(n-1)+logn
a) O(n2) b)O(n log n) c)O(n) d)O(log n)
Q16.T(n)=T(n-2)+2logn
a) O(n2) b)O(nlog3) c)O(n) d)O(log n)
Q17.T(n)=2T(n-1)+1
a) O(n2) b)O(nlog3) c)O(2n) d)O(log n)
Q18.T(n)=2T(√n)+logn
a) O(n2) b)O(nlog3) c)O(lognloglogn) d)O(log n)
Q19.2T(n/2)+n2
a) O(n2) b)O(nlog3) c)O(2n) d)O(log n)
Q20. T(n)=T(n-1)+n+c
a) O(n2) b)O(nlog3) c)O(2n) d)O(log n)
Q21. The time required by Kruskal's algorithm is
a)O(|E|log|V|) b)O(VlogE) c)O(EV) d)O(log V)
Q22. The time required by Prim's algorithm is
a)O(|V|2) b)O(VlogE) c)O(EV) d)O(log V)
Q23.In Prim,s algorithm, it will be reduced to _________if heap is used to keep
a)O(|E|log|V|) b)O(VlogE) c)O(EV) d)O(log V)
Q24.T(n)=T(n/4)+2T(n)+n2
a) O(n2) b)O(nlog3) c)O(2n) d)O(log n)
Q25. T(n)=2T(√n)+nlogn+n
a) Ω(n2) bΩ(nlog3) c)Ω(2n) d)none of these
Answers
1.a 2.d 3.b 4.a 5.b 6.b 7.a 8.b 9.d 10.b 11.a 12.d
13.c 14.d 15.b 16.b 17.c 18.c 19.a 20.a 21.a 22.a 23.a 24.a
25. d
Q1.T(n)=T(n-1)+n
a)O(n2) b)O(n log n) c)O(n) d)O(log n)
Q2.T(n)=2T(n/2)+c
a) O(n2) b)O(n log n) c)O(n) d)O(log n)
Q3.T(n)= 2T(n/2)+n
a O(n2) b)O(n log n) c)O(n) d)O(log n)
Q4.T(n)=3T(n/4)+c(n2)
a)O(n2) b)O(n log n) c)O(n) d)O(log n)
Q5.T(n)=2T(n/2+17)+O(n)
a) O(n2) b)O(n log n) c)O(n) d)O(log n)
Q6.T(n)=T(n/3)+T(2n/3)+O(n)
a) O(n2) b)O(n log n) c)O(n) d)O(log n)
Q7.T(n)=9T(n/3)+n
a)O(n2) b)O(n log n) c)O(n) d)O(log n)
Q8.T(n)=3T(n/4)+nlogn
a) O(n2) b)O(n log n) c)O(n) d)O(log n)
Q9.T(n)=T(2n/3)+1
a)O(n) b)O(n log n) c)O(n) d)O(log n)
Q10.T(n)=3T(n/2)+nlogn
a) O(n2) b)O(nlog 3) c)O(n) d)O(log n)
Q11.T(n)=4T(n/2)+n2√n
a) O(n2√n) b)O(n log n) c)O(n) d)O(log n)
Q12.T(n)=2T(n/2)+n/logn
a) O(n2) b)O(n log n) c)O(n) d)O(nloglog n)
Q13.T(n)=T(n/2)+T(n/4)+T(n/8)+n
a) O(n2) b)O(n log n) c)O(n) d)O(log n)
Q14.T(n)=T(n-1)+1/n
a) O(n2) b)O(n log n) c)O(n) d)O(log n)
Q15.T(n)=T(n-1)+logn
a) O(n2) b)O(n log n) c)O(n) d)O(log n)
Q16.T(n)=T(n-2)+2logn
a) O(n2) b)O(nlog3) c)O(n) d)O(log n)
Q17.T(n)=2T(n-1)+1
a) O(n2) b)O(nlog3) c)O(2n) d)O(log n)
Q18.T(n)=2T(√n)+logn
a) O(n2) b)O(nlog3) c)O(lognloglogn) d)O(log n)
Q19.2T(n/2)+n2
a) O(n2) b)O(nlog3) c)O(2n) d)O(log n)
Q20. T(n)=T(n-1)+n+c
a) O(n2) b)O(nlog3) c)O(2n) d)O(log n)
Q21. The time required by Kruskal's algorithm is
a)O(|E|log|V|) b)O(VlogE) c)O(EV) d)O(log V)
Q22. The time required by Prim's algorithm is
a)O(|V|2) b)O(VlogE) c)O(EV) d)O(log V)
Q23.In Prim,s algorithm, it will be reduced to _________if heap is used to keep
a)O(|E|log|V|) b)O(VlogE) c)O(EV) d)O(log V)
Q24.T(n)=T(n/4)+2T(n)+n2
a) O(n2) b)O(nlog3) c)O(2n) d)O(log n)
Q25. T(n)=2T(√n)+nlogn+n
a) Ω(n2) bΩ(nlog3) c)Ω(2n) d)none of these
Answers
1.a 2.d 3.b 4.a 5.b 6.b 7.a 8.b 9.d 10.b 11.a 12.d
13.c 14.d 15.b 16.b 17.c 18.c 19.a 20.a 21.a 22.a 23.a 24.a
25. d
SQL
Q1. The SQL expression
Select distinct T.branch_name from branch T, branch S
Where T.assets>S.asset and S.branch_city=”BAREILLY”
Finds the name of
a) all branches that have greater assets than some branches located in BAREILLY
b) all branches that have greater assets than all branches located in BAREILLY
c) the branch that has greater assets in BAREILLY
d) any branch that has greatest assets than any branch located in BAREILLY
Q2. In an entity relationship, y is dominant entity and x is a subordinate entity. Then
which of the following is/are correct
a)operationally, if y is deleted, so is x
b) x is existence dependent on y
c) operationally, x is deleted on y
d)operationally, x is deleted, y remains the same
Q3.On a simple paging system with a page table containing 64 entries of 11 bits
(including valid/invalid bit) each, and a page size of 512 bytes, how many bits are in a
physical address.
a)11 b)13 c)15 d)19
Q4. A certain moving arm disk storage with one head has following specifications:
Number of tracks/recording surface=200
Disk rotation speed=2400 rpm.
Track storage capacity=62500bits
The average latency time(assume that head can move from one track to another only
by traversing the entire track) is
a)2.5 s b)2.9s c)3.1s d)3.6s
Q5.if the following program fragment (assume negative numbers are stored in 2’s complement form):
unsigned i=1;
int j=-4;
printf(“%u”,i+j);
prints x, then printf(“%d”,8*sizeof(int));
outputs(log in the answers are to the base two )
a)log(x+3) b)8*log(x+3) c)error d)log 8(x+3)
Q6. the use of macro in the place of functions
a) reduces execution time b)reduce code size
c)increases execution time d)increases code size
Q7. which of the following commands are used in Batch Programs:
a)REM b)Break c)set d)DOS
Q8.pickout odd one
a)SISD b)SIMD c)MIMD d)MISD
Q9. which interrupt is known as giant of interrupts
a)Int 20h b)Int 21h c)Int 22h d)Int 23h
Q10. what is “initrd”
a)Initial Remote Disk b)Initial RAM Disk
c)init Remote Disk d)none of these
Q11. if an appropriate implementation of the priority queue is used, then the round robin algorithm requires operations.
a)O(e log log n) b)O(e log e) c)O(n2) d)O(n log n)
Q12. consider the following grammar:
S->Ax/By
A->By/Cw
B->By/Bw
C->y
Which of the following expressions describes the same set of strings as the grammar?
a) xw*y+xw*yx+ywx b) xwy+xw*xyx+ywx
c) xw*y+xwxyx+ywx d) xwxy+xww*y+ywx
Q13. let G1 and G2 be arbitrary CFG’s and R an arbitrary regular set. Which of the following problems are undecidable.
a)L(G1)≠L(G2) b) L(G2)= L(G1) c) L(G1)=R d) L(G1)≠R
Q14.if R is a relation on A ={1,2,3,4} given by
R={(1,3),(1,4),(3,2),(3,3),(3,4)} then R-1 is given by
a){(3,1),(4,1),(2,3),(3,3),(4,3)} b) {(3,1),(1,2),(2,2),(3,3),(4,3)}
c){(2,3,5)} d)none of these
Q15.In a class of 100 students, 39 play Tennis, 58 play Cricket, 32 play Hockey, 10 play cricket and hockey,11 play hockey and tennis and 13 play tennis and cricket. The number of students who play all three games is
a) 4 b)5 c)6 d)7
Q16. A set of vectors X1,X2,………………Xr if for scalars C1,C2,C3……….Cr in F. the expression C1X1+C2X2+C3X3……………..CrXr=0 is called
a) linearly factor b)linearly dependent
c)linearly independent d)none of these
Q17. An 8 bit converter is driven by a 500KHz clock. What is the average conversion time.
a)0.256ms b)0.142ms c)0.444ms d)0.764ms
Q18.In a micro-computer has a 64 K memory, what are the hexadecimal notation for the first and memory location.
a)0000, EEEE b)0,64 c)0000,FFFF d)0000,9999
Q19. ∑ m(1,2,4,6) is equivalent to
a)∏ M(0,3,5,4,7) b)∏ M(0,3,4,7)
c)∏ M(0,3,6,7) d)∏ M(0,3,5,7)
Q20. Eight 16384 X1bit RAM ICs could be arranged similar to these to form a 16384 X 8 bit read/write memory. This is referred to as a …….. K memory
a.) 2K b)4K c)48K d)16K
Q21. match the following
a)macro definition table l)switch
b)macro name table m)macro call
c)argument list array n)MDT index
d)macro definition level counter o)index member
Q22. Relocation is externally defined symbols is preferred by
a)linker b)loader c)compiler d)assembler
Q23. In FTP, when you ---------- it is copied from the server to the client
a)retrieve a file b)write a file
c)copy a file d) none of these
Q24. which of the following is an application layer services
a)mail service b)process to process delivery
c)remote log in d)none of these
Q25. what is the bandwidth of a signal that ranges from 40KHz to 4MHz
a)360MHz b)36KHz
c)3.96MHz d)none of these
ANSWERS: 1.a,b 2.c 3.d 4.a 5.b 6.b 7.a 8.c 9.b 10.b 11.a 12.c 13.c 14.a 15.b 16.c 17.a 18.c 19.c 20.d 21. a->o,b->n,c->m,d->l 22.a 23.a 24.a 25.c
.
Select distinct T.branch_name from branch T, branch S
Where T.assets>S.asset and S.branch_city=”BAREILLY”
Finds the name of
a) all branches that have greater assets than some branches located in BAREILLY
b) all branches that have greater assets than all branches located in BAREILLY
c) the branch that has greater assets in BAREILLY
d) any branch that has greatest assets than any branch located in BAREILLY
Q2. In an entity relationship, y is dominant entity and x is a subordinate entity. Then
which of the following is/are correct
a)operationally, if y is deleted, so is x
b) x is existence dependent on y
c) operationally, x is deleted on y
d)operationally, x is deleted, y remains the same
Q3.On a simple paging system with a page table containing 64 entries of 11 bits
(including valid/invalid bit) each, and a page size of 512 bytes, how many bits are in a
physical address.
a)11 b)13 c)15 d)19
Q4. A certain moving arm disk storage with one head has following specifications:
Number of tracks/recording surface=200
Disk rotation speed=2400 rpm.
Track storage capacity=62500bits
The average latency time(assume that head can move from one track to another only
by traversing the entire track) is
a)2.5 s b)2.9s c)3.1s d)3.6s
Q5.if the following program fragment (assume negative numbers are stored in 2’s complement form):
unsigned i=1;
int j=-4;
printf(“%u”,i+j);
prints x, then printf(“%d”,8*sizeof(int));
outputs(log in the answers are to the base two )
a)log(x+3) b)8*log(x+3) c)error d)log 8(x+3)
Q6. the use of macro in the place of functions
a) reduces execution time b)reduce code size
c)increases execution time d)increases code size
Q7. which of the following commands are used in Batch Programs:
a)REM b)Break c)set d)DOS
Q8.pickout odd one
a)SISD b)SIMD c)MIMD d)MISD
Q9. which interrupt is known as giant of interrupts
a)Int 20h b)Int 21h c)Int 22h d)Int 23h
Q10. what is “initrd”
a)Initial Remote Disk b)Initial RAM Disk
c)init Remote Disk d)none of these
Q11. if an appropriate implementation of the priority queue is used, then the round robin algorithm requires operations.
a)O(e log log n) b)O(e log e) c)O(n2) d)O(n log n)
Q12. consider the following grammar:
S->Ax/By
A->By/Cw
B->By/Bw
C->y
Which of the following expressions describes the same set of strings as the grammar?
a) xw*y+xw*yx+ywx b) xwy+xw*xyx+ywx
c) xw*y+xwxyx+ywx d) xwxy+xww*y+ywx
Q13. let G1 and G2 be arbitrary CFG’s and R an arbitrary regular set. Which of the following problems are undecidable.
a)L(G1)≠L(G2) b) L(G2)= L(G1) c) L(G1)=R d) L(G1)≠R
Q14.if R is a relation on A ={1,2,3,4} given by
R={(1,3),(1,4),(3,2),(3,3),(3,4)} then R-1 is given by
a){(3,1),(4,1),(2,3),(3,3),(4,3)} b) {(3,1),(1,2),(2,2),(3,3),(4,3)}
c){(2,3,5)} d)none of these
Q15.In a class of 100 students, 39 play Tennis, 58 play Cricket, 32 play Hockey, 10 play cricket and hockey,11 play hockey and tennis and 13 play tennis and cricket. The number of students who play all three games is
a) 4 b)5 c)6 d)7
Q16. A set of vectors X1,X2,………………Xr if for scalars C1,C2,C3……….Cr in F. the expression C1X1+C2X2+C3X3……………..CrXr=0 is called
a) linearly factor b)linearly dependent
c)linearly independent d)none of these
Q17. An 8 bit converter is driven by a 500KHz clock. What is the average conversion time.
a)0.256ms b)0.142ms c)0.444ms d)0.764ms
Q18.In a micro-computer has a 64 K memory, what are the hexadecimal notation for the first and memory location.
a)0000, EEEE b)0,64 c)0000,FFFF d)0000,9999
Q19. ∑ m(1,2,4,6) is equivalent to
a)∏ M(0,3,5,4,7) b)∏ M(0,3,4,7)
c)∏ M(0,3,6,7) d)∏ M(0,3,5,7)
Q20. Eight 16384 X1bit RAM ICs could be arranged similar to these to form a 16384 X 8 bit read/write memory. This is referred to as a …….. K memory
a.) 2K b)4K c)48K d)16K
Q21. match the following
a)macro definition table l)switch
b)macro name table m)macro call
c)argument list array n)MDT index
d)macro definition level counter o)index member
Q22. Relocation is externally defined symbols is preferred by
a)linker b)loader c)compiler d)assembler
Q23. In FTP, when you ---------- it is copied from the server to the client
a)retrieve a file b)write a file
c)copy a file d) none of these
Q24. which of the following is an application layer services
a)mail service b)process to process delivery
c)remote log in d)none of these
Q25. what is the bandwidth of a signal that ranges from 40KHz to 4MHz
a)360MHz b)36KHz
c)3.96MHz d)none of these
ANSWERS: 1.a,b 2.c 3.d 4.a 5.b 6.b 7.a 8.c 9.b 10.b 11.a 12.c 13.c 14.a 15.b 16.c 17.a 18.c 19.c 20.d 21. a->o,b->n,c->m,d->l 22.a 23.a 24.a 25.c
.
COMPUTER FUNDAMENTALS
1. Q The first minicomputer were developed and built in 1965 by
(a) IBM (b) DEC (c) Intel (d) HP
2. Q Which Was the First computer to use transistor instead of Vacuum Tubes ?
(a) IBM-1401 (b) Datamatic-1000 (c) Intel-650 (d) Burroughs E-101
3. Q The Difference engine was to be
(a) An Electronic Digital Computer (b) An Electromechanical Device
(c) Powered By Steam (d) none of above
4. Q Herman Hollerith Designed machines
(a) That could create astronomical tables (b)That were capable of performing any computation
(c) That could sort and tabulate punched cards (d) None of above
5. Q A person credited with inventing the first electronic computer is
(a) Konred Zuse (b) John Atanasoff (c) John Mauchly (d) All of the above
6. Q The ENIAC
(a) Was Totally Electronic (b) Was the size of a personal computer
(c) Was programmed by punched cards (d) Both (a) & (c) above
7. Q A Fourth Generation chip contains
(a) A Single Transistor (b) Less Than 100 Transistors (c) Thousands of Transistors (d) Billions Of transistors
8. Q CP/M
(a) is used to control a keyboard, CRT Screen, and disks
(b) became the Standard Programming Language for personal computers
(c) was initially designed to be used by non-programmers (d) both (a ) & (b) Above
9. Q A Computer first Sold in the Kit Form was the
(a) Altair (b) APPLE II (c) TRS- 80 Model I (d) All of the above
10 Q Who Proposed the stored program concept
(a) T.J. Watson, Sr. (b) Charles Babbage (c) John Von Neumann (d) Bill gates
11 Q The Punched card used in IBM System/3 Contains
(a) 60 Columns (b) 80 Columns (c) 100 Columns (d) 120 Columns
12. Q Which of the following Processor is based on RISC Concept?
(a) Intel 80486 (b) Intel 80586 (c) Intel P6 (d) None of above
13. Q Which was the world’s first microcomputer that used Intel 80586 Microprocessor Chip.
(a) IBM PS/2 (b) HP-9830 (c) Deskpro-386 (d) IBM 360
14. Q First integrated circuit chip was developed by
(a) C. Babbage (b) W.H.Britain (c) J.S. Kilby (d) Robert Noyce
15. Q The person who contributed to the idea of stored Program was
(a) Pascal (b) Howered Aiken (c) Charles Babbage (d) John Von Neumann
16. Q Which was world’s first Minicomputer and when was it introduced
(a) PDP-1, 1958 (b) IBM System/36,1960 (c) PDP-II 1961 (d) VAX 11/780,1962
17. Q Who is the creator of PASCAL Language
(a) Dijkstra (b) Niklaus Writh (c) D.Knuth (d) Aho
18. Q The team at Intel that built the First Microprocessor was headed by
(a) Seymour Cray (b) Victor Poor (c) Stan Mazor (d) Marcian E (Ted) Hoff
19. Q Which of the following belongs to first generation computers?
(a) ENIAC (b) IBM 1401 (c) IBM 8090 (d) UNIVAC
20. Q A Byte Comprises of
(a) 4 Bits (b) 2 Nibble (c) 6 bits (d) none of above
21. Q A transaction file is of type of
(a) Master file (b) Data File (c) Access method (d) all of above
22. Q How many Units in a single bus structure Communicate at a Time
(a) One (b) two (c) Three (d) Four
23. Q The Digital Computer was developed primarily in
(a) USSR (b) Japan (c) USA (d) UK
24. Q The unit of speed used for super computer is
(a) KFLOPS (b) MFLOPS (c) GFLOPS (d) All of above
25. Q How many symbols Exist in Baudot Code?
(a) 42 (b) 116 (c) 58 (d) 76
26. Q The First Large-scale electronic computer which became operational in 1946 and contained approximately 18000 vacuum tubes and could perform 300 multiplication per second was known as
(a) ILLIAC (b) ENIAC (c) JOHNIAC (d) EDSAC
27. Q Who developed a mechanical device in the 17th century that could add, subtract, multiply, divide and Find Sq. roots?
(a) Napier (b) Babbage (c) Pascal (d) Leibnitz
28. Q Which of the following terms is the most closely related to main memory
(a) Non Volatile (b) Permanent (c) Control Unit (d) Temporary
29. Q The Personal Computer Industry was started by
(a) IBM (b) Apple (c) Compaq (d) HCL
30. Q Which of the following Indian companies designs and manufactures Super-Computer?
(a) C-DOT (b) C-DAC (c) CMC (d) All of above
31. Q Where were silicon chips manufactured in India?
(a) Chandigarh (b) Punjab (c) U.P. (d) Tamilnadu
32. Q What is the name given to the molecular scale Computer?
(a) Femtocomputer (b) Nanocomputer (c) Supercomputer (d) Microcomputer
33. Q What was the nickname of the computer used by Americans in 1952 for their H-bomb Project?
(a) ENIAC (b) EDSAC (c) MANIAC (d) UNIVAC
34. Q Which of the following is a portable computer boasting of two CPU chips?
(a) HCL ZX81 (b) IBM Spectrum (c) Tandy TRS-80 (d) Epson HX-20
35. Q What is the size of the diskettes used by IBM’s newer PS/2 personal Computers?
(a) 5 ½ “ (b) 8 “ (c) 3 ½ “ (d) 2 ½ “
36. Q Which Computer company invented RAM Chip?
(a) Motorola (b) Intel (c) Toshiba (d) IBM
37. Q The usual Expected life of any Processor Architecture is
(a) 5 years (b) 7 years (c) 9 years (d) 16 years
38. Q The largest of the four conceptual areas of storage is likely to be the
(a) Program Area (b) Output Area (c) Working Area (d) Input Area
39. Q A billionth of a second is defined as a
(a) Millisecond (b) microsecond (c) nanosecond (d) picosecond
40. Q Which Device can produce the final product of machine processing in to a form usable by humans?
(a) Storage (b) Input Device (c) Output Device (d) Control
41. Q An Integrated Circuit is
(a) Fabricated on a tiny silicon Chip (b) A Complicated circuit
(c) Much costlier than a single transistor (d) An Integrating device
42. Q Express 8192 in K units
(a) 8 x 103 K (b) 8.192 K (c) 8K (d) All of the above
43. Q A microprocessor has memory locations from 0000 to 3FFF. Each memory location stores 1 byte. How many bytes can be stored? Express in kilobytes.
(a) 4095, 4K (b) 16384, 16 K (c) 32740, 32 K (d) 46040, 46 K
44. Q If a microcomputer has a 64 K memory, what are the hexadecimal notations for the first and last memory location?
(a) 0000,EEEE (b) 0,64 (c) 0000,FFFF (d) 0000,9999
45. Q The first Computer made available for commercial use was
(a) Mark-I (b) ENIAC (c) EDSAC (d) UNIVAC
46. Q Who is called the “grand father” of the computer
(a) Blaise Pascal (b) Charles Babbage (c) Joseph Jacquard (d) Dr. Herman Hollerith
47. Q Who was the father of Punched card processing
(a) J Presper Eckert (b) Charles Babbage (c) Dr. Herman Hollerith (d) Blaise Pascal
48. Q The first machine to successfully perform a long series of arithmetic and logical operation was
(a) EDSAC (b) UNIVAC-I (c) Mark-I (d) ENIAC
49. Q The man who built the first Mechanical Calculator was
(a) Joseph Marie Jacquard (b) John Mauchly (c) Blaise Pascal (d) Harward Ailken
50. Q Computers built before the First Generation of computers were
(a) Mechanical (b) Electro-mechanical (c) Electrical (d) None of these
Fundamental-1
1. A
2. A
3. C
4. C
5. D
6. A
7. C
8. A
9. A
10. C
11. B
12. C
13. C
14. C
15. D
16. A
17. B
18. B
19. D
20. B
21. A
22. B
23. C
24. C
25. C
26. B
27. D
28. D
29. B
30. B
31. A
32. B
33. C
34. D
35. C
36. B
37. B
38. A
39. C
40. C
41. A
42. C
43. B
44. C
45. D
46. B
47. C
48. C
49. C
50. B
(a) IBM (b) DEC (c) Intel (d) HP
2. Q Which Was the First computer to use transistor instead of Vacuum Tubes ?
(a) IBM-1401 (b) Datamatic-1000 (c) Intel-650 (d) Burroughs E-101
3. Q The Difference engine was to be
(a) An Electronic Digital Computer (b) An Electromechanical Device
(c) Powered By Steam (d) none of above
4. Q Herman Hollerith Designed machines
(a) That could create astronomical tables (b)That were capable of performing any computation
(c) That could sort and tabulate punched cards (d) None of above
5. Q A person credited with inventing the first electronic computer is
(a) Konred Zuse (b) John Atanasoff (c) John Mauchly (d) All of the above
6. Q The ENIAC
(a) Was Totally Electronic (b) Was the size of a personal computer
(c) Was programmed by punched cards (d) Both (a) & (c) above
7. Q A Fourth Generation chip contains
(a) A Single Transistor (b) Less Than 100 Transistors (c) Thousands of Transistors (d) Billions Of transistors
8. Q CP/M
(a) is used to control a keyboard, CRT Screen, and disks
(b) became the Standard Programming Language for personal computers
(c) was initially designed to be used by non-programmers (d) both (a ) & (b) Above
9. Q A Computer first Sold in the Kit Form was the
(a) Altair (b) APPLE II (c) TRS- 80 Model I (d) All of the above
10 Q Who Proposed the stored program concept
(a) T.J. Watson, Sr. (b) Charles Babbage (c) John Von Neumann (d) Bill gates
11 Q The Punched card used in IBM System/3 Contains
(a) 60 Columns (b) 80 Columns (c) 100 Columns (d) 120 Columns
12. Q Which of the following Processor is based on RISC Concept?
(a) Intel 80486 (b) Intel 80586 (c) Intel P6 (d) None of above
13. Q Which was the world’s first microcomputer that used Intel 80586 Microprocessor Chip.
(a) IBM PS/2 (b) HP-9830 (c) Deskpro-386 (d) IBM 360
14. Q First integrated circuit chip was developed by
(a) C. Babbage (b) W.H.Britain (c) J.S. Kilby (d) Robert Noyce
15. Q The person who contributed to the idea of stored Program was
(a) Pascal (b) Howered Aiken (c) Charles Babbage (d) John Von Neumann
16. Q Which was world’s first Minicomputer and when was it introduced
(a) PDP-1, 1958 (b) IBM System/36,1960 (c) PDP-II 1961 (d) VAX 11/780,1962
17. Q Who is the creator of PASCAL Language
(a) Dijkstra (b) Niklaus Writh (c) D.Knuth (d) Aho
18. Q The team at Intel that built the First Microprocessor was headed by
(a) Seymour Cray (b) Victor Poor (c) Stan Mazor (d) Marcian E (Ted) Hoff
19. Q Which of the following belongs to first generation computers?
(a) ENIAC (b) IBM 1401 (c) IBM 8090 (d) UNIVAC
20. Q A Byte Comprises of
(a) 4 Bits (b) 2 Nibble (c) 6 bits (d) none of above
21. Q A transaction file is of type of
(a) Master file (b) Data File (c) Access method (d) all of above
22. Q How many Units in a single bus structure Communicate at a Time
(a) One (b) two (c) Three (d) Four
23. Q The Digital Computer was developed primarily in
(a) USSR (b) Japan (c) USA (d) UK
24. Q The unit of speed used for super computer is
(a) KFLOPS (b) MFLOPS (c) GFLOPS (d) All of above
25. Q How many symbols Exist in Baudot Code?
(a) 42 (b) 116 (c) 58 (d) 76
26. Q The First Large-scale electronic computer which became operational in 1946 and contained approximately 18000 vacuum tubes and could perform 300 multiplication per second was known as
(a) ILLIAC (b) ENIAC (c) JOHNIAC (d) EDSAC
27. Q Who developed a mechanical device in the 17th century that could add, subtract, multiply, divide and Find Sq. roots?
(a) Napier (b) Babbage (c) Pascal (d) Leibnitz
28. Q Which of the following terms is the most closely related to main memory
(a) Non Volatile (b) Permanent (c) Control Unit (d) Temporary
29. Q The Personal Computer Industry was started by
(a) IBM (b) Apple (c) Compaq (d) HCL
30. Q Which of the following Indian companies designs and manufactures Super-Computer?
(a) C-DOT (b) C-DAC (c) CMC (d) All of above
31. Q Where were silicon chips manufactured in India?
(a) Chandigarh (b) Punjab (c) U.P. (d) Tamilnadu
32. Q What is the name given to the molecular scale Computer?
(a) Femtocomputer (b) Nanocomputer (c) Supercomputer (d) Microcomputer
33. Q What was the nickname of the computer used by Americans in 1952 for their H-bomb Project?
(a) ENIAC (b) EDSAC (c) MANIAC (d) UNIVAC
34. Q Which of the following is a portable computer boasting of two CPU chips?
(a) HCL ZX81 (b) IBM Spectrum (c) Tandy TRS-80 (d) Epson HX-20
35. Q What is the size of the diskettes used by IBM’s newer PS/2 personal Computers?
(a) 5 ½ “ (b) 8 “ (c) 3 ½ “ (d) 2 ½ “
36. Q Which Computer company invented RAM Chip?
(a) Motorola (b) Intel (c) Toshiba (d) IBM
37. Q The usual Expected life of any Processor Architecture is
(a) 5 years (b) 7 years (c) 9 years (d) 16 years
38. Q The largest of the four conceptual areas of storage is likely to be the
(a) Program Area (b) Output Area (c) Working Area (d) Input Area
39. Q A billionth of a second is defined as a
(a) Millisecond (b) microsecond (c) nanosecond (d) picosecond
40. Q Which Device can produce the final product of machine processing in to a form usable by humans?
(a) Storage (b) Input Device (c) Output Device (d) Control
41. Q An Integrated Circuit is
(a) Fabricated on a tiny silicon Chip (b) A Complicated circuit
(c) Much costlier than a single transistor (d) An Integrating device
42. Q Express 8192 in K units
(a) 8 x 103 K (b) 8.192 K (c) 8K (d) All of the above
43. Q A microprocessor has memory locations from 0000 to 3FFF. Each memory location stores 1 byte. How many bytes can be stored? Express in kilobytes.
(a) 4095, 4K (b) 16384, 16 K (c) 32740, 32 K (d) 46040, 46 K
44. Q If a microcomputer has a 64 K memory, what are the hexadecimal notations for the first and last memory location?
(a) 0000,EEEE (b) 0,64 (c) 0000,FFFF (d) 0000,9999
45. Q The first Computer made available for commercial use was
(a) Mark-I (b) ENIAC (c) EDSAC (d) UNIVAC
46. Q Who is called the “grand father” of the computer
(a) Blaise Pascal (b) Charles Babbage (c) Joseph Jacquard (d) Dr. Herman Hollerith
47. Q Who was the father of Punched card processing
(a) J Presper Eckert (b) Charles Babbage (c) Dr. Herman Hollerith (d) Blaise Pascal
48. Q The first machine to successfully perform a long series of arithmetic and logical operation was
(a) EDSAC (b) UNIVAC-I (c) Mark-I (d) ENIAC
49. Q The man who built the first Mechanical Calculator was
(a) Joseph Marie Jacquard (b) John Mauchly (c) Blaise Pascal (d) Harward Ailken
50. Q Computers built before the First Generation of computers were
(a) Mechanical (b) Electro-mechanical (c) Electrical (d) None of these
Fundamental-1
1. A
2. A
3. C
4. C
5. D
6. A
7. C
8. A
9. A
10. C
11. B
12. C
13. C
14. C
15. D
16. A
17. B
18. B
19. D
20. B
21. A
22. B
23. C
24. C
25. C
26. B
27. D
28. D
29. B
30. B
31. A
32. B
33. C
34. D
35. C
36. B
37. B
38. A
39. C
40. C
41. A
42. C
43. B
44. C
45. D
46. B
47. C
48. C
49. C
50. B
GATE COMPUTER FUNDAMENTAL QUESTIONS ANSWERS
Computer Fundamentals-4
1. Q A bit which says something about a piece of data is called
(a) Field (b) Flag (c) Database (d) Record
2. Q Which is a Solid-state method of data storage where bits are represented by magnetic domain
(a) Accumulator (b) CPU (c) Bubble Memory (d) ALU
3. Q The earliest medium for storing data was
(a) Magnetic Tape (b) Magnetic Disk (c) Punched Card (d) Plotter
4. Q The Memory capacity of a Mini Computer is
(a) 640 KB (b) 256 KB (c) 250 KB (d) 1024 KB
5. Q The transformation of a message into an encoded form is known as
(a) Mnemonics (b) Encoding (c) Encryption (d) Decoding
6. Q Which is an electronic Device that can store temporarily a single bit of data.
(a) Accumulator (b) Buffer (c) Memory (d) Latch
7. Q Which is another name for functional Language?
(a) Machine (b) Application Language (c) Low-level Language (d) High-level Language
8. Q A Device invented by Dr. Bobbeck in 1966, for mass storage of data is
(a) Punched Paper tape (b) Magnetic Bubble Storage (c) Magnetic tape (d) Magnetic Disk
9. Q The micro computer has got a word processing capacity of
(a) 518-8 kilowords (b) 630-8 kilowords (c) 425-8 kilowords (d) 512-8 kilowords
10. Q The first relay operated computer was developed by
(a) IBM (b) Contrad Zuse (c) Howard Aiken (d) Blaise Pascal
11. Q Which type of computers are known as Z1, Z2.
(a) Personal (b) Electrical (c) Electronic (d) Mechanical
12. Q Control unit is Often called as
(a) Nerve Center (b) Master Dispatcher (c) Clock (d) All of above
13. Q Transmission and presentation of text and graphics is called
(a) Tele-text (b) Network (c) Telematique (d) Video text
14. Q A system in which the logic actions are not confined to the central processor is
(a) AI (b) Distributed logic (c) KIPS (d) Optical Computer
15. Q Which is the part of the database program that maintains the organisation of the database
(a) DMA (b) CAD (c) DIV (d) DMS
16. Q A number that is used to control the form of another number is known as
(a) Map (b) Mask (c) Mamtossa (d) Marker
17. Q Which circular transparent disk has a pattern of radial bars printed on it.
(a) Milk Disk (b) Optical disk (c) Hard Disk (d) Mini Disk
18. Q An input device that uses switch contacts placed under a plastic pad which may be inscribed with symbols is known as
(a) Punched Paper Tape (b) Punched Card (c) Touch Pad (d) Magnetic Disk
19. Q A File that has been transferred to a lower level in the memory hierarchy is known as
(a) Random File (b) Sequential File (c) Archive File (d) Serial File
20. Q Resistance to alteration by system errors of data stored in a computer is
(a) Data Hierarchy (b) Data Integrity (c) Data General (d) Data Logging
21. Q An Interconnection between two logic gates permitting them to form a Flip-Flop is
(a) Cross Coupling (b) Modem (c) Network (d) Cross talk
22. Q Which Network is a Packet switching network
(a) Ring Network (b) LAN (c) Star Network (d) EuroNET
23. Q Operation code is also known as
(a) Bar Code (b) Source Code (c) Object Code (d) Order Code
24. Q A Table within a computer that contains a mapping between logical page addresses & physical addresses is
(a) Truth Table (b) Paging (c) Page Table (d) Padding
25. Q Which is a swapping device that is used to hold the images of pages in main memory
(a) Plex (b) Paging Drum (c) Card Punch (d) Optical Mark Reader
26. Q Which is a standard interface made up of 100 parallel common communication lines
(a) RS-232 (b) S-100 bus (c) RS-256 (d) CP/100
27. Q The Time required to complete a single, continuous execution of an object program is
(a) Run Time (b) Real Time (c) Response Time (d) Delay Time
28. Q The basic unit of main memory storage is called
(a) CPU (b) ALU (c) Accumulator (d) Buffer
29. Q Which language was created by Charles H. Moore at National Radio Astronomy Observatory
(a) BASIC (b) FORTH (c) dBASE (d) COBOL
30. Q Full Adder has
(a) 4 inputs (b) 8 inputs (c) 3 inputs (d) 2 inputs
31. Q A local storage register which contains the address of the next instructions to be executed is
(a) Accumulator (b) Address Register (c) Buffer (d) Memory
32. Q The range of frequencies available for data transmission is known as
(a) Baud (b) Bandwidth (c) Byte (d) Bits
33. Q A path for carrying signals between a source and a destination is known as
(a) Route (b) Channel (c) Link (d) Block
34. Q Tiny rings made of magnetic material that can be polarised to represent binary 1 or o is called
(a) Magnetic Core (b) Magnetic Disk (c) Card Punch (d) Floppy Disk
35. Q The part of a machine level instruction which tells the central processor what has to be done is known as
(a) Opcode (b) Address (c) CPU (d) Monitor
36. Q A memory in which the information is stored last is on top & is retrieved first is known as
(a) PROM (b) Buffer (c) Stack (d) RAM
37. Q Computer Instructions written with the use of English words instead of binary machine code is called
(a) Mnemonics (b) Symbolic Code (c) Gray Code (d) Opcode
38. Q The invention of the slide rule is attributed to
(a) Babbage (b) Oughtred (c) Pascal (d) Napier
39. Q An output device that uses words or messages recorded on a magnetic medium to produce audio response is
(a) Voice Recognition Unit (b) Magnetic Tape (c) Voice Response Unit (d) Voice Band
40. Q The light pen was developed in
(a) 1942 (b) 1976 (c) 1950 (d) 1992
41. Q ILLIAC is a
(a) Super Computer (b) Mini Computer (c) Mainframe Computer (d) Micro Computer
42. Q A metal Disk coated with ferromagnetic substance for storing data is
(a) Hard Disk (b) Magnetic Tape (c) Floppy Disk (d) Card Punch
43. Q A circuit which can store information is known as
(a) Integrated Circuit (b) Chip (c) Memory Cell (d) Gate
44. Q The location where input/output devices are connected to the computer is known as
(a) Keyboard (b) Accumulator (c) Bus (d) Port
45. Q A part located in the central processing unit that stores data & information is known as
(a) Core memory (b) PROM (c) EPROM (d) ROM
46. Q A directly accessible appointment calendar is a feature of a ….. resident package.
(a) CPU (b) Memory (c) Buffer (d) ALU
47. Q Which Disk interface standard includes support for up to eight peripheral devices ?
(a) ST50G/412 (b) IDE (c) SCSI (d) ESDI
48. What type of memory is not directly addressable by the CPU and requires special software called EMS(expanded memory Specification)
(a) Extended (b) Expanded (c) Base (d) Conventional
49. Q Today’s SIMMs boast the access speeds of …… nanoseconds
(a) 60 (b) 70 (c) 80 (d) 90
50. Q what is a portion of memory that serves as a temporary repository for data as it waits for a given action?
(a) Memory Pool (b) Cache (c) Processor (d) Processor pool
ANSWERS
Fundamental-4
1. B 2. A 3. C 4. B 5. B 6. D 7. B 8. B 9. D 10. C
11. D 12. B 13. D 14. B 15. D 16. B 17. A 18. C 19. C 20. B
21. A 22. D 23. D 24. C 25. B 26. B 27. A 28. C 29. B 30. C
31. B 32. B 33. B 34. A 35. A 36. C 37. B 38. B 39. C 40. C
41. A 42. A 43. C 44. D 45. A 46. B 47. C 48. B
49. A,B,C
50. B
1. Q A bit which says something about a piece of data is called
(a) Field (b) Flag (c) Database (d) Record
2. Q Which is a Solid-state method of data storage where bits are represented by magnetic domain
(a) Accumulator (b) CPU (c) Bubble Memory (d) ALU
3. Q The earliest medium for storing data was
(a) Magnetic Tape (b) Magnetic Disk (c) Punched Card (d) Plotter
4. Q The Memory capacity of a Mini Computer is
(a) 640 KB (b) 256 KB (c) 250 KB (d) 1024 KB
5. Q The transformation of a message into an encoded form is known as
(a) Mnemonics (b) Encoding (c) Encryption (d) Decoding
6. Q Which is an electronic Device that can store temporarily a single bit of data.
(a) Accumulator (b) Buffer (c) Memory (d) Latch
7. Q Which is another name for functional Language?
(a) Machine (b) Application Language (c) Low-level Language (d) High-level Language
8. Q A Device invented by Dr. Bobbeck in 1966, for mass storage of data is
(a) Punched Paper tape (b) Magnetic Bubble Storage (c) Magnetic tape (d) Magnetic Disk
9. Q The micro computer has got a word processing capacity of
(a) 518-8 kilowords (b) 630-8 kilowords (c) 425-8 kilowords (d) 512-8 kilowords
10. Q The first relay operated computer was developed by
(a) IBM (b) Contrad Zuse (c) Howard Aiken (d) Blaise Pascal
11. Q Which type of computers are known as Z1, Z2.
(a) Personal (b) Electrical (c) Electronic (d) Mechanical
12. Q Control unit is Often called as
(a) Nerve Center (b) Master Dispatcher (c) Clock (d) All of above
13. Q Transmission and presentation of text and graphics is called
(a) Tele-text (b) Network (c) Telematique (d) Video text
14. Q A system in which the logic actions are not confined to the central processor is
(a) AI (b) Distributed logic (c) KIPS (d) Optical Computer
15. Q Which is the part of the database program that maintains the organisation of the database
(a) DMA (b) CAD (c) DIV (d) DMS
16. Q A number that is used to control the form of another number is known as
(a) Map (b) Mask (c) Mamtossa (d) Marker
17. Q Which circular transparent disk has a pattern of radial bars printed on it.
(a) Milk Disk (b) Optical disk (c) Hard Disk (d) Mini Disk
18. Q An input device that uses switch contacts placed under a plastic pad which may be inscribed with symbols is known as
(a) Punched Paper Tape (b) Punched Card (c) Touch Pad (d) Magnetic Disk
19. Q A File that has been transferred to a lower level in the memory hierarchy is known as
(a) Random File (b) Sequential File (c) Archive File (d) Serial File
20. Q Resistance to alteration by system errors of data stored in a computer is
(a) Data Hierarchy (b) Data Integrity (c) Data General (d) Data Logging
21. Q An Interconnection between two logic gates permitting them to form a Flip-Flop is
(a) Cross Coupling (b) Modem (c) Network (d) Cross talk
22. Q Which Network is a Packet switching network
(a) Ring Network (b) LAN (c) Star Network (d) EuroNET
23. Q Operation code is also known as
(a) Bar Code (b) Source Code (c) Object Code (d) Order Code
24. Q A Table within a computer that contains a mapping between logical page addresses & physical addresses is
(a) Truth Table (b) Paging (c) Page Table (d) Padding
25. Q Which is a swapping device that is used to hold the images of pages in main memory
(a) Plex (b) Paging Drum (c) Card Punch (d) Optical Mark Reader
26. Q Which is a standard interface made up of 100 parallel common communication lines
(a) RS-232 (b) S-100 bus (c) RS-256 (d) CP/100
27. Q The Time required to complete a single, continuous execution of an object program is
(a) Run Time (b) Real Time (c) Response Time (d) Delay Time
28. Q The basic unit of main memory storage is called
(a) CPU (b) ALU (c) Accumulator (d) Buffer
29. Q Which language was created by Charles H. Moore at National Radio Astronomy Observatory
(a) BASIC (b) FORTH (c) dBASE (d) COBOL
30. Q Full Adder has
(a) 4 inputs (b) 8 inputs (c) 3 inputs (d) 2 inputs
31. Q A local storage register which contains the address of the next instructions to be executed is
(a) Accumulator (b) Address Register (c) Buffer (d) Memory
32. Q The range of frequencies available for data transmission is known as
(a) Baud (b) Bandwidth (c) Byte (d) Bits
33. Q A path for carrying signals between a source and a destination is known as
(a) Route (b) Channel (c) Link (d) Block
34. Q Tiny rings made of magnetic material that can be polarised to represent binary 1 or o is called
(a) Magnetic Core (b) Magnetic Disk (c) Card Punch (d) Floppy Disk
35. Q The part of a machine level instruction which tells the central processor what has to be done is known as
(a) Opcode (b) Address (c) CPU (d) Monitor
36. Q A memory in which the information is stored last is on top & is retrieved first is known as
(a) PROM (b) Buffer (c) Stack (d) RAM
37. Q Computer Instructions written with the use of English words instead of binary machine code is called
(a) Mnemonics (b) Symbolic Code (c) Gray Code (d) Opcode
38. Q The invention of the slide rule is attributed to
(a) Babbage (b) Oughtred (c) Pascal (d) Napier
39. Q An output device that uses words or messages recorded on a magnetic medium to produce audio response is
(a) Voice Recognition Unit (b) Magnetic Tape (c) Voice Response Unit (d) Voice Band
40. Q The light pen was developed in
(a) 1942 (b) 1976 (c) 1950 (d) 1992
41. Q ILLIAC is a
(a) Super Computer (b) Mini Computer (c) Mainframe Computer (d) Micro Computer
42. Q A metal Disk coated with ferromagnetic substance for storing data is
(a) Hard Disk (b) Magnetic Tape (c) Floppy Disk (d) Card Punch
43. Q A circuit which can store information is known as
(a) Integrated Circuit (b) Chip (c) Memory Cell (d) Gate
44. Q The location where input/output devices are connected to the computer is known as
(a) Keyboard (b) Accumulator (c) Bus (d) Port
45. Q A part located in the central processing unit that stores data & information is known as
(a) Core memory (b) PROM (c) EPROM (d) ROM
46. Q A directly accessible appointment calendar is a feature of a ….. resident package.
(a) CPU (b) Memory (c) Buffer (d) ALU
47. Q Which Disk interface standard includes support for up to eight peripheral devices ?
(a) ST50G/412 (b) IDE (c) SCSI (d) ESDI
48. What type of memory is not directly addressable by the CPU and requires special software called EMS(expanded memory Specification)
(a) Extended (b) Expanded (c) Base (d) Conventional
49. Q Today’s SIMMs boast the access speeds of …… nanoseconds
(a) 60 (b) 70 (c) 80 (d) 90
50. Q what is a portion of memory that serves as a temporary repository for data as it waits for a given action?
(a) Memory Pool (b) Cache (c) Processor (d) Processor pool
ANSWERS
Fundamental-4
1. B 2. A 3. C 4. B 5. B 6. D 7. B 8. B 9. D 10. C
11. D 12. B 13. D 14. B 15. D 16. B 17. A 18. C 19. C 20. B
21. A 22. D 23. D 24. C 25. B 26. B 27. A 28. C 29. B 30. C
31. B 32. B 33. B 34. A 35. A 36. C 37. B 38. B 39. C 40. C
41. A 42. A 43. C 44. D 45. A 46. B 47. C 48. B
49. A,B,C
50. B
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